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I have been trying to solve this problem, and I get a ridiculous answer, but I don't know why. Let's suppose there is a high energy proton in Earth's atmosphere that collides with a cosmic microwave background photon. Let's suppose that this collision results in a pion $\pi^0$ being created, and another proton. I am trying to compute the minimum energy the initial proton should have for this process to be possible. I have worked in natural units, so that $c^2 = 1$, and using the metric described in the Wikipedia article for four-momenta, which I believe is the most common one. This is what I've done:

  1. I have written the four-momenta of all particles involved. The original proton has $p_1 = (E_1,\vec{p_1})$, while the photon has $p_\gamma = (|\vec{p}_\gamma|,\vec{p}_\gamma)$. I imagine the excess energy of the proton is used to generate the pion, and so the products should have zero linear momentum. Therefore, I write for the second proton $p_2 = (E_2,\vec{p}_2) = (m_p,\vec{0})$ and for the pion $p_\pi = (m_\pi,\vec{0})$.

  2. I have decided to use Mandelstam $t$ variable, so that: $$t\equiv(p_1 - p_2)^2 = (p_\gamma - p_\pi)^2$$ Performing the four-momenta products I get: $$m_p^2 + m_p^2 - 2(E_1 m_p - \vec{p1}\cdot\vec{0}) = m_\pi^2 - 2(E_\gamma m_\pi - \vec{p_\gamma}\cdot\vec{0})$$ Which simplifies to: $$2m_p^2 - 2E_1 m_p = m_\pi^2 - 2E_\gamma m_\pi$$ And after solving for $E_1$ (the initial proton's energy) I get: $$E_1 = \frac{2E_\gamma m_\pi + 2m_p^2 - m_\pi^2}{2m_p}$$ Now, a cosmic microwave background photon ($T \approx 2.7$ K) has an energy in the order of $\frac{3}{2}k_B T = 3\times 10^{-4}$ eV, while $m_p \approx 938$ MeV and $m_\pi \approx 135$ MeV, so the photon term is not going influence the outcome much. The thing is, after plugging in the values, I get $E_1 \approx 928$ MeV. But this is ridiculous, since that's not even the proton's mass at rest. So I obviously went wrong somewhere. I checked how this problem was solved in class, and what was done differently is assuming that the products have a total momentum of zero globally, in the center of mass reference frame. I realise this is a weaker requirement that what I did, which was to assume that everything was at rest instead of the net momentum being zero, which still leaves room for particles to move. Nevertheless, my classmates seem to have assumed each particle (the resulting pion and the proton, separately) to have $\vec{p} = \vec{0}$ in their calculations, which baffles me because that's what I did.

Specifically, what they did is write the following four-momentum for the products: $$p_\text{products} = (E_2 + E_\pi, \vec{0})$$ And then, when squaring it, they get $p_\text{products}^2 = (m_p + m_\pi)^2$, which does not make sense to me unless each particle has zero momentum.

Where did I make a mistake? Thanks everyone in advance.

Manuel
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  • Your classmates didn't assume their individual momentum are zero, this is just standard analysis in the center of momentum frame since $\vec{p}{\pi}=-\vec{p}{2p}$ (where this is the three momentum of the resulting proton). – Triatticus Oct 09 '23 at 12:31
  • Virtual duplicate. You seem to have misunderstood the method. Have you computed the crucial quantities in both the lab and center-of-momentum frame? – Cosmas Zachos Oct 09 '23 at 13:20
  • "I imagine the excess energy of the proton is used to generate the pion, and so the products should have zero linear momentum". You imagine right in the CM frame, but not the cosmic frame, whose $p_1$ is sought. Your assumption in 1 is absurd and untenable. – Cosmas Zachos Oct 09 '23 at 13:44
  • I think I see my mistake, tranks. If I write the products as having zero momentum as a whole (that is, if I write the four momentum $(E_\pi + E_p, \vec{0})$), the solution is immediate. I think I was not understanding the fact that the scalar product is Lorentz invariant. I will clarify in the original post. – Manuel Oct 09 '23 at 14:12

1 Answers1

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"Where did I make a mistake?" questions are the messiest to answer. Specifically, you misunderstood the method, relying on relativistic invariance of s, and computing it in the cosmic (CMB) background on the left-hand-side (before the collision) and in the center-of-momentum frame after the collision. Your assumption that $\vec p_2=\vec p_\pi=0$ in the cosmic frame is unwarranted and absurd. Your classmates presumably did the right thing and applied it to the correct c.o.m. frame, the heart of each and every threshold problem, where it achieves its minimum—see duplicate question.

The cosmic frame l.h.side is $$ s=(E_1+\omega)^2- (|\vec p_1|-\omega)^2=m_p^2 + 2\omega (E_1+ |\vec p_1|)\approx m_p^2 + 4\omega E_1, $$ while the c.o.m. frame of the products on the r.h.side (at rest) is $$ (m_p+m_\pi)^2. $$ Equating the two yields the GZK-type formula, $$ E_1\approx \frac{m_\pi(2m_p+m_\pi)}{4\omega} \sim 10^{20} eV. $$

You may express this threshold condition in inequalities as the duplicate's answers do, but the important point is to not miss the forest for the trees as here, and appreciate the magnitudes of all quantities, large and small.

Based on the linked question, you may also estimate that, in the cosmic frame, $|\vec p_2|$ is quite close to $E_1$, not 0!

Cosmas Zachos
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  • Thank you very much for your answer. Just to recap, I understand this is my mistake. If $s$ is invariant, then equating $s$ for the L.H.S. (in the cosmic frame) with $s$ for the R.H.S. (in the c.o.m. frame) is the right approach, and my mistake was to assign a momentum of zero to each outgoing particle, right? I was thinking in the c.o.m. frame, but I imagined both particles at rest at the same time, which is obviously wrong. – Manuel Oct 09 '23 at 15:02
  • Right. Given the answer, proceed to estimate the final (nonzero!) momenta in the cosmic frame... – Cosmas Zachos Oct 09 '23 at 15:10
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    Thanks for the help :) – Manuel Oct 09 '23 at 15:42