I am working through the Mirror Symmetry book, available here.
I already had a question about an earlier part of the same Exercise 9.2.1 on page 157:
We are given the following action with one boson and two fermions ($h$ is some function of $X$): $$\begin{align*} S(X, \Psi_1, \Psi_2) = \frac{1}{2} (\partial h)^2 - \partial^2 h \Psi_1 \Psi_2. \end{align*}\tag{9.29}$$
We are told to consider the following transformations:
$$\begin{align*} X' &= X +\epsilon^1 \Psi_1 + \epsilon^2 \Psi_2 \\ \Psi_1' &= \Psi_1 + \epsilon^2 \partial h \\ \Psi_2' &= \Psi_2 - \epsilon^1 \partial h. \end{align*}\tag{9.30}$$
$\epsilon^i$ and $\Psi_i$ are Grassmann odd variables, and so anticommute.
We are asked to show the integration measure is invariant. It says in doing so, we will develop a concept of superdeterminant and supertrace. I'm not sure if we are really expected to develop these notions ourselves here, but I resorted to referencing Wikipedia: Berezin Integral
From that wiki page:
\begin{align*} dX' d\Psi_1'd\Psi_2' = \frac{det(A - B D^{-1}C)}{det(D)}dX d\Psi_1 d\Psi_2 \end{align*}
where $A = \frac{\partial X'}{\partial X}$, $B = \frac{\partial X'}{\partial \Psi_j}$, $C = \frac{\partial \Psi_i'}{\partial X}$, and $D = \frac{\partial \Psi_i'}{\partial \Psi_j'}$.
I got
\begin{align*} dX' d\Psi_1'd\Psi_2' = (1 - 2 (\partial^2 h) \epsilon_1 \epsilon_2)dX d\Psi_1 d\Psi_2 \end{align*}
This comes from $A = 1$, $B = (\epsilon_1, \epsilon_2)$, $C = (\epsilon_2 \partial^2 h, - \epsilon_1 \partial^2 h)^{T}$, and $D = I_2)$.
In case it matters, I am assuming derivatives act from the right.
Have I made a calculation error? Or is there some reason why the $\epsilon_1 \epsilon_2$ term should be zero?