just a quick question on $F_{\mu\nu}^a$. I'm correct to think $F_{\mu}^{\mu,a}$ vanishes, aren't I? (Just want to make sure...) My reasoning is as follows:
The derivative terms cancel anyways - that's obvious - so the only "critical" term of $F_{\mu}^{\mu,a}$ is $f^{abc}A_{\mu}^b A^{\mu,c}$ but this vanishes because the combination of A's is symmetric but the $f$ totally antisymmetric. Am I right?