I was recently studying Quantum mechanics from R.Shankar's Principles of Quantum Mechanics.
I recently encountered improper vectors, and function and infinte-dimensional vectors. But I got confused at a point:
The book introduced a hermitian operator that takes the derivate of a ket $|{\psi} \rangle$ from the Hermitian operator K which is defined as: $$K_{xx'}=-i\delta'(x-x')$$
Then it solved for the eigenfunction of K:$$\psi_k(x)=Ae^{ikx}$$
where k is the eigenvalue and $\psi_k$ is the corresponding eigenfunction. Then the book proved:
$$\langle k|k'\rangle=\delta(k-k')$$
here k depicts eigenfunction in vector form. The book then Introduces the X operator and does some maths(I didn't understood a thing,except that it multiplies a function by x.). Then the book says:
In the k basis, K operator just multiplies with the function with k while the X operator becomes $i\frac{d}{dx}$.
I wanted to give it a try,$$K_{kk'}=\langle k|K|k'\rangle$$ $$K_{kk'}=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\langle k|x\rangle\langle x|K|x'\rangle\langle x'|k'\rangle dxdx'}}$$ $$K_{kk'}=C\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\delta(x-x')e^{-ikx}e^{ik'x'}dx'dx}}$$ $$K_{kk'}=C\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{e^{-ikx}e^{ik'x}dx}$$ which corresponds to:$$K_{kk'}=\langle p|p'\rangle$$ Which is not accurate(The above integral was taken from the book only).The Calculation for X in k basis was even more terrible. So here is my question:
- What is the X operator actually?
- What is wrong with my calculations above? I hope you guys will help me, I want to know Where I am getting it wrong, I hope you ideas will help. Thanks in advance.
In QM, $\hat{X}$ is an operator that corresponds to the position of a quantum particle. All of this will be spelled out in detail (you're only on Ch 1, a mathematical introduction!).
– march Dec 14 '23 at 16:37