If one interchanges two identical fermions in the wavefunction of a $N$-particle system, the total wavefunction changes by a sign i.e., the total wavefunction should be antisymmetric under the interchange of any two identical fermions. I have two very related doubts regarding the application of this principle.
DEUTERON
Deuteron is a bound state of a neutron and a proton. It is made of two non-identical fermions - the proton which is electrically charged and the electrically neutral neutron. Why should we insist that the total wavefunction (space $\times$ spin $\times$ isospin) be antisymmetric under the interchange of $n$ and $p$?
Note added in response to @naturallyinconsistent Well, one may argue that n and p are two different isospin states of the same particle "the nucleon". So with isospin symmetry, $n$ and $p$ may be considered identical (See the answer here by Lubos). But isospin symmetry is a good symmetry only if we can neglect the electric charge of the proton i.e. in a Universe governed only by strong interactions but not electromagnetism. In the real world, n and p are distinguished by their electromagnetic interactions.
BARYON
Similarly, consider a light baryon that is made of three different flavors of quarks $u,d,s$ which, as I understand, are non-identical fermions. Because the charge of $u$ is not equal to the charge of $d,s$. The mass of $u,d$ is approximately equal but not equal to that of $s$. Therefore, how can we claim that the total wavefunction (space $\times$ spin $\times$ isospin $\times$ color) will be antisymmetric under the interchange of any two quarks? It seems to me that the antisymmetry of the total wavefunction is at best an approximate requirement in the limit when mass differences can be neglected and differences in the electric charges can be neglected.