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If one interchanges two identical fermions in the wavefunction of a $N$-particle system, the total wavefunction changes by a sign i.e., the total wavefunction should be antisymmetric under the interchange of any two identical fermions. I have two very related doubts regarding the application of this principle.

DEUTERON

Deuteron is a bound state of a neutron and a proton. It is made of two non-identical fermions - the proton which is electrically charged and the electrically neutral neutron. Why should we insist that the total wavefunction (space $\times$ spin $\times$ isospin) be antisymmetric under the interchange of $n$ and $p$?

Note added in response to @naturallyinconsistent Well, one may argue that n and p are two different isospin states of the same particle "the nucleon". So with isospin symmetry, $n$ and $p$ may be considered identical (See the answer here by Lubos). But isospin symmetry is a good symmetry only if we can neglect the electric charge of the proton i.e. in a Universe governed only by strong interactions but not electromagnetism. In the real world, n and p are distinguished by their electromagnetic interactions.

BARYON

Similarly, consider a light baryon that is made of three different flavors of quarks $u,d,s$ which, as I understand, are non-identical fermions. Because the charge of $u$ is not equal to the charge of $d,s$. The mass of $u,d$ is approximately equal but not equal to that of $s$. Therefore, how can we claim that the total wavefunction (space $\times$ spin $\times$ isospin $\times$ color) will be antisymmetric under the interchange of any two quarks? It seems to me that the antisymmetry of the total wavefunction is at best an approximate requirement in the limit when mass differences can be neglected and differences in the electric charges can be neglected.

AccidentalFourierTransform
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    where did you get the impression that the non-identical fermions are also anti-symmetrised? – naturallyInconsistent Dec 15 '23 at 03:37
  • @naturallyInconsistent I gave you two examples. The deuteron and the baryons. If you cared to read it, you'll understand that the question is precisely that. Why should the deuteron wavefunction be completely antisymmetric (when n and p are not identical)? – Solidification Dec 15 '23 at 03:51
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    I'm precisely asking you who gave you that idea that those non-identical fermions are supposed to be skew-symmetrised? – naturallyInconsistent Dec 15 '23 at 03:57
  • Why is deuteron wavefunction completely antisymmetric? https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/4778/164488 Why are baryon wavefunctions completely antisymmetric? Also see https://students.iiserkol.ac.in/~mms15ms051/courses/PH4204/[Pal%20Palash%20B]%20An%20Introductory%20Course%20of%20Particle%20Physics.pdf Page 215, Example 2 – Solidification Dec 15 '23 at 04:09
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    You should add these things to the question, because otherwise it is not easy to understand where you are coming from. What part of the answer given by Lubos do you not understand? While they are definitely not identical fermions on the fundamental level, the trick is to consider them as nucleons under isospin, in which case they are supposed to be identical under this scheme. – naturallyInconsistent Dec 15 '23 at 04:18
  • I think I have explained that too. When electric charges are present, I think isospin symmetry cannot be exact. The particles can be distinguished by their EM interactions. In a Universe governed only by strong interactions neutrons and protons can be identical. – Solidification Dec 15 '23 at 04:24
  • I did not downvote your question 2) I am merely telling you some improvements you can make to the question 3) You should be adding the LINKS to the question, so that if some moderator comes by and deletes the comments, it will stay. 4) Your question is worded in a way that somewhat attracts downvotes. 5) Nobody is claiming that isospin symmetry is exact, but we are trying to tell you that the symmetry characteristics is coming from there, since your question pertains to that. 6) It is not helpful to point out that nuclear physics is full of haphazard approximations; we all know that.
  • – naturallyInconsistent Dec 15 '23 at 04:33
  • Does this answer your question?: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/360206 – Rococo Dec 22 '23 at 18:23