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The nonrelativistic molecular Hamiltonian has inversion symmetry, since the kinetic energy operator and the Coulomb operator have inversion symmetry,

$$\begin{aligned} \hat p_i^2&\stackrel{i}{\rightarrow} (-\hat p_i)^2 = \hat p_i^2\\ \frac{1}{|\hat r_i- \hat r_j|} &\stackrel{i}{\rightarrow} \frac{1}{|\hat r_j- \hat r_i|}=\frac{1}{|\hat r_i- \hat r_j|}\\ \hat H &= \sum_i \hat p_i^2/2m_i + k\sum_{i>j}\frac{Z_iZ_j}{|\hat r_i- \hat r_j|} \end{aligned}$$ where $i$ and $j$ run over all particles, i.e., electrons and nuclei.

This means that energy eigenstates should have inversion symmetry as the Hamilton operator commutes with the inversion operator.

This begs the question how molecules without inversion symmetry and constant dipole moments can exist.

What is the connection between molecular structures and the eigenvalues of the molecular Hamiltonian and what causes the symmetry breaking, since we can clearly observe stable molecules that have constant dipole moments.

EDIT:

My reasoning above was based on the assumption that a ground state is also a eigenstate of the parity operator. The discussion in the comments made me realize that this is not the only option. In the case of degeneracy of the parity eigenstates, there is the possibility of a superposition state. Let

$$\begin{aligned} \hat i|\psi_n^u\rangle &=-1|\psi^u_n\rangle \\ \hat i|\psi_n^g\rangle &=+1|\psi^g_n\rangle \\ \hat H|\psi_n^g\rangle &=E_n|\psi^g_n\rangle \\ \hat H|\psi_n^u\rangle &=E_n|\psi^u_n\rangle \end{aligned}$$

Then we can form states with energy $E_n$ of the form $|\psi_n\rangle \equiv c_u|\psi_n^u\rangle +c_g|\psi_n^g\rangle$, where $g/u$ stand for even/odd parity.

The expectation value of the dipole operator $\hat d$ of such a state contains terms that have overall even symmetry, $c^*_uc_g\langle \psi_n^u|\hat d| \psi_n^g\rangle + h.c.$ This means that a ground state with a nonzero dipole moment is possible.

But there is still the question what exactly fixes the coefficients $c_u,c_g$ so that we have a ground state with a clearly defined dipole moment. It cannot be energy or minimization of energy, since we started with the assumption of degeneracy, so any combination of $c_u,c_g$ will have the same energy.

While I have shown that a ground state with a dipole moment is possible under inversion symmetry, I am still unclear how a particular molecule with a specific dipole moment realizes.

Qmechanic
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Hans Wurst
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    The symmetry just says that the molecule and its mirror image are eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian of the same energy – not that there are only symmetric solutions. The same holds, e.g. for the rotation symmetry of the hydrogen Hamiltonian. You can choose your solutions as inversion even/inversion odd by linear combination of the usual non-symmetric solutions. – Sebastian Riese Dec 18 '23 at 16:59
  • @SebastianRiese What do you mean with solutions? The observable ground states should be energy eigenstates and these eigenstates are also eigenstates of the inversion operator. This means that they are even or odd. In either case the expectation value of the dipole operator will be zero since the expectation value integral will be odd overall due to the odd parity of the dipole operator. The fact that you can expand states without inversion symmetry into this basis does not resolve this point. – Hans Wurst Dec 18 '23 at 18:53
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  • @HansWurst Think about rotation symmetry, do you think that because the Hamiltonian is rotation symmetric, every state that solves the Hamiltonian will be rotation symmetric? You can certainly create such a superposition state – but that's not what you usually meet in reality (handwavingly, (a) because the initial states have some orientation, and (b) because interaction with the thermal environment/position measurment decoheres such states where the heavy nuclei are in weird position-superpositions. That you can choose a common eigenbasis does not mean the solutions have to be symmetric. – Sebastian Riese Dec 18 '23 at 20:57
  • Regarding the ammonia case: This is a fun example, because the odd state has lower energy than the even state even though the "below" and "above" state have the same energy (because the odd state has lower density in the high potential region of zero offset in the plane of the molecule and Born-Oppenheimer is enough to see that). – Sebastian Riese Dec 18 '23 at 21:02
  • (To be clear the "above" and "below" states don't really have energies because they are no eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian, but you can derive them as approximate eigenstates with something like WKB – and then derive the energy split by using the even and odd superpositions as ansatz in a variation calculation.) – Sebastian Riese Dec 18 '23 at 21:17
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    @SebastianRiese I was wrong to assume that the energy eigenstates have to be eigenstates of the parity operator, thank you for pointing that out. You are correct that we can have any mixture in the degenerate case. My mind was still stuck in point group tables where we usually have further symmetry operations that lift the degeneracy with respect to inversion. – Hans Wurst Dec 18 '23 at 22:17
  • I'd like to read (and probably upvote) an answer you write about that understanding! :) – Sebastian Riese Dec 18 '23 at 23:06
  • @SebastianRiese I have updated the question body. I think I am still missing a piece of the puzzle. – Hans Wurst Dec 19 '23 at 08:16
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    I do not have the time to properly answer now (maybe later), but consider checking Sec. 2.2 of this paper, and its Refs. [19-36] (mainly the work of Woolley). – dennismoore94 Dec 21 '23 at 11:40
  • "The nonrelativistic molecular Hamiltonian has inversion symmetry..." This is only true in general if you treat both the electrons and the nuclei as dynamical. Often it is only the electrons that are treated dynamically (they move in a potential due to classical nuclei). Are you really trying to solve for a wavefunction that describes both the electrons and the nuclei? – hft Jan 09 '24 at 22:07
  • In other words, are you OK with using the Born-Oppenheimer approximation, or not? – hft Jan 09 '24 at 23:22
  • @hft The question intentionally avoids invoking the Born-Oppenheimer approximation, and should be answered without the BO as starting point or ideally without invoking it at all. That should be possible, however, it appears to be non trivial, which is the reason for asking this question here in the first place. – Hans Wurst Jan 10 '24 at 08:26

5 Answers5

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First of all, there is an incorrect statement in the question "the eigenstates should have the inversion symmetry." This is not correct. Rather, the eigenstates should transform under some representation of the inversion symmetry. This isn't just a nitpick, the answer to the full question partially lies in this misconception. Consider for example the $2\mathrm{P}$ state of the hydrogen atom (ignoring electron spin for now), which transforms as a the "triplet representation" under rotations. The three eigenstates of the Hamiltonian with different $L_z$ values are NOT symmetric under rotations, as the Hamiltonian is. But they transform like a representation of the rotation group. That is, there is a well-defined way to rewrite a linear combination of $L_z$ eigenstates after rotating your coordinate system (the Wigner D matrices I think?).

Now for the bigger, more important question - how can molecules have permanent dipole moments. This is critical for your understanding of quantum mechanics: In free space, the groundstate of a molecule DOES NOT have a dipole moment which is oriented in a specific direction in space. However, in the sense that I'll describe in this paragraph, it still has a dipole moment. In the absence of an external electric field, the grounstate of a molecule will indeed be symmetric under rotations. And its energy will increase quadratically with the electric field strength. Note that except with a different central force potential, different charges, and much different masses, a negatively charged ion orbiting a positively charged one is the same thing as a hydrogen atom. However, rotational excited states will have energies that change linearly with the applied electric field. This comes from a term in the Hamiltonian of the form $p\cdot \mathbf{E}$, where $p=q(r_1-r_2)$, and through degenerate perturbation theory, rotationally excited states will have linear combinations which do have a polarization. But the energy difference between the rotational groundstate and the excited states is much smaller than the energy level difference between the $1\mathrm{S}$ state of hydrogen and the $2\mathrm{P}$ state. And mixing between the groundstate and the excited states is what gives rise to a regime where the energy starts to change linearly $|\mathbf{E}|$. So how strong the electric field needs to be before the quadratic behavior ends is much lower for the molecule than for the hydrogen atom, and the electric field needed to start observing a roughly constant dipole moment is much lower. Therefore, with any reasonable electric field you almost immediately see a linear response in the molecule, indicating the presence of a permanent dipole moment. And unlike in hydrogen, that dipole moment changes very weakly with the strength of the applied electric field, because its magnitude is mostly set by the bond length which is mostly independent of the rotational quantum numbers. In the hydrogen atom groundstate, the dipole moment needs to be first created by the electric field ($p=\alpha \mathbf{E}$ for the hydrogen $1\mathrm{S}$ state up to very high electric fields).

You may be surprised to find that a Hydrogen atom in the $2\mathrm{P}$ state can also have a polarization, even though the $2\mathrm{P}$, $L_z=0$ state says the electron is equally likely to be in any direction, and the two other $L_z$ eigenstates alone do not make an electric dipole moment nonzero expectation value. This is to say that the energy of the three $2\mathrm{P}$ states separate linearly with the magnitude of the applied electric field. This is because there are linear combinations of the three degenerate $L_z$ eigenvalues which do have a charge distribution (the electron is more likely to be on one side of the proton than the other). So when you apply an electric field, with degenerate perturbation theory, you find that the electric field determines which linear combinations are still eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian including the electric field.

AXensen
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The apparent contradiction is the following. The general non-relativistic Hamiltonian $$ \begin{aligned} {\cal{H}}&= -\sum_{a=1}^{\cal{N}}\frac{1}{2m_a}\nabla_{\rho,a}^2+\sum_{\substack{a,b=1 \\ a<b}}^{\cal{N}}\frac{\alpha z_az_b}{|\vec{\rho}_a-\vec{\rho}_b|} \\ &= -\sum_{i=1}^{N_{\text{e}}}\frac{1}{2m}\nabla_i^2+\sum_{\substack{i,j=1 \\ i<j}}^{N_{\text{e}}}\frac{\alpha}{|\vec{r}_i-\vec{r}_j|} -\sum_{i}^{N_{\text{e}}}\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}\frac{\alpha Z_A}{|\vec{r}_i-\vec{R}_A|} -\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}\frac{1}{2M_A}\nabla_A^2+\sum_{\substack{A,B=1 \\ A<B}}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}\frac{\alpha Z_AZ_B}{|\vec{R}_A-\vec{R}_B|} \end{aligned} $$ is invariant under inversions $\vec{\rho}_a\rightarrow-\vec{\rho}_a$ (that is, $(\vec{r}_i,\vec{R}_A)\rightarrow(-\vec{r}_i,-\vec{R}_A)$), meaning its non-degenerate energy eigenstates are also parity eigenstates which cannot carry a permanent dipole moment: $$ \vec{\mu}=\langle\Psi|\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}Z_A\vec{R}_A-e\sum_{i=1}^{N_{\text{e}}}\vec{r}_i|\Psi\rangle=0 \ . $$ However, at the same time, the clamped nucleus approximation of $\cal{H}$ (esentially the first half of the Born-Oppenheimer separation: letting $M_A\rightarrow\infty$ and treating $\vec{R}$ as parameters) leads to $$ \begin{aligned} H(\vec{R})= -\sum_{i=1}^{N_{\text{e}}}\frac{1}{2m}\nabla_i^2+\sum_{\substack{i,j=1 \\ i<j}}^{N_{\text{e}}}\frac{\alpha}{|\vec{r}_i-\vec{r}_j|} -\sum_{i=1}^{N_{\text{e}}}\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}\frac{\alpha Z_A}{|\vec{r}_i-\vec{R}_A|} +\sum_{\substack{A,B=1 \\ A<B}}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}\frac{\alpha Z_AZ_B}{|\vec{R}_A-\vec{R}_B|} \ , \end{aligned} $$ which does give rise to a dipole moment: $$ \vec{\mu}=\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}Z_A\vec{R}_A-e\langle\Phi(\vec{R})|\sum_{i=1}^{N_{\text{e}}}\vec{r}_i|\Phi(\vec{R})\rangle=\sum_{A=1}^{N_{\text{nuc}}}Z_A\vec{R}_A-e \int\mathrm{d}^3r\vec{r}\rho(\vec{r};\vec{R}) \ . $$ In the above, $\vec{R}$ refers to the (parametric) dependence on all the nuclear coordinates, and $\rho$ is just the electronic density that can be calculated from $\Phi$. Neglecting any vibrational effects and simply using the equilibrium (minimal energy) nuclear configurations gives us permanent dipole moments that are in rather good agreement with experiment. For example[1][2]: $$ \begin{aligned} \mu_{\text{calc}}(\text{HCl})\approx 1.084 \, \text{D} \ \ \ &\leftrightarrow \mu_{\text{exp}}(\text{HCl})\approx 1.093 \, \text{D} \ , \\ \mu_{\text{calc}}(\text{H$_2$O})\approx 1.840 \, \text{D} \ \ \ &\leftrightarrow \mu_{\text{exp}}(\text{H$_2$O})\approx 1.857 \, \text{D} \ . \end{aligned} $$ How could we generate a non-zero dipole moment from the clamped nucleus approximation, and how can such a value be extracted from the general formalism? The punchline is that dipole moment is only zero in a laboratory-fixed frame due to free rotations/inversions. Clamping the nuclei, however, picks out a molecule-fixed frame (position and orientation being fixed by the point charges of the nuclei), in which a non-zero dipole moment can be found; this corresponds to the fact that a molecule of $N_\text{nuc}$ nuclei has only $3N_\text{nuc}-6$ internal degrees of freedom ($3N_\text{nuc}-5$ when linear). The question is whether such a molecule-fixed frame can be found without clamping the nuclei.

The first thing to realize is that the kinetic energy associated with center-of-mass motion must be excluded from ${\cal{H}}$, otherwise the spectrum would be continuous, and no internal motion could be described: $$ {\cal{H}}=-\frac{1}{2M_{\text{tot}}}\nabla^2_{\text{COM}}+H_\text{in} \ . $$ There are, however, an infinite number of coordinate transformations that can achieve this[3][4]! Any invertible linear transformation $$ \vec{\rho}'_a=\sum_{b=1}^{\cal{N}}t_{ab}\vec{\rho}_b $$ satisfying the additional conditions $$ t_{1b}=\frac{m_b}{M_\text{tot}} \ \ \ , \ \ \ \sum_{b=1}^{\cal{N}}t_{ab}=\delta_{a1} $$ is sufficient to completely decouple the motion of $\vec{\rho}'_1=\vec{\cal{R}}_{\text{COM}}$.

Let us find the appropriate molecule-fixed frame for diatomic molecules; the rest of my answer is limited to this case. The internal coordinates are specifically $$ \begin{aligned} \vec{\rho}'_1&=\vec{R}'_1=\vec{\cal{R}}_{\text{COM}} \ , \\ \vec{\rho}'_2&=\vec{R}'_2=\vec{R}_2-\vec{R}_1 \ , \\ \vec{\rho}'_{i+2}&=\vec{r}'_i=\vec{r}_i-\frac{1}{2}(\vec{R}_1+\vec{R}_2) \ , \end{aligned} $$ so that an internuclear vector $\vec{R}=\vec{R}'_2-\vec{R}'_1$ emerges, and all electron coordinates are measured from the geometric center of the molecule (it is easy to check that this is a special case of the above general transformation). This transformation leads to $$ H_\text{in}=-\frac{1}{2M_+}\nabla_R^2-\frac{1}{2m}\sum_{i=1}^N{\nabla'}_i^2 -\frac{1}{8M_+}\sum_{i,j=1}^N{\nabla'}_i\cdot{\nabla'}_j+\frac{1}{2M_-}\nabla_R\cdot\sum_{i=1}^N{\nabla'}_i+V \ , $$ where we introduced $$ \frac{1}{M_\pm}=\frac{1}{M_2}\pm\frac{1}{M_1} \ . $$ Note that this frame is space-fixed in the sense that its orientation is still tied to that of the original laboratory-fixed frame. To finally have the molecule-fixed frame, we write $$ \vec{R}=R\cos(\phi)\sin(\theta)\vec{e}'_x+R\sin(\phi)\sin(\theta)\vec{e}'_y+R\cos(\theta)\vec{e}'_z \ , $$ and switch to a new coordinate system whose "$z$" axis coincides with $\vec{R}$ in the primed coordinate system: $$ \begin{aligned} \vec{e}''_x&=\frac{\partial_\theta\vec{R}}{|\partial_\theta\vec{R}|}=\cos(\phi)\cos(\theta)\vec{e}'_x+\sin(\phi)\cos(\theta)\vec{e}'_y-\sin(\theta)\vec{e}'_z \ , \\ \vec{e}''_y&=\frac{\partial_\phi\vec{R}}{|\partial_\phi\vec{R}|}=-\sin(\phi)\vec{e}'_x+\cos(\phi)\vec{e}'_y \ , \\ \vec{e}''_z&=\frac{\vec{R}}{R}=\cos(\phi)\sin(\theta)\vec{e}'_x+\sin(\phi)\sin(\theta)\vec{e}'_y+\cos(\theta)\vec{e}'_z \ . \end{aligned} $$ The notation is somewhat confusing, since these are actually the $\vec{e}_\theta,\vec{e}_\phi,\vec{e}_R$ unit vectors of the spherical coordinate system, but this is the convention set by Kolos and Wolniewicz[5] that everyone seems to follow. Using $$ \vec{r}'_i=x'_{i}\vec{e}'_x+y'_{i}\vec{e}'_y+z'_{i}\vec{e}'_z= x''_{i}\vec{e}''_x+y''_{i}\vec{e}''_y+z''_{i}\vec{e}''_z $$ the components in the space-fixed (primed) and molecule-fixed (double-primed) systems can be seen to related: $$ \begin{bmatrix} x_i'' \\ y_i'' \\ z_i'' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \cos(\phi)\cos(\theta) & \sin(\phi)\cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) \\ -\sin(\phi) & \cos(\phi) & 0 \\ \cos(\phi)\sin(\theta) & \sin(\phi)\sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_i' \\ y_i' \\ z_i' \end{bmatrix} \ , $$ and with this in hand, the Hamiltonian can be transformed to the molecule-fixed coordinates. The dipole moment operator is defined in this very frame: $$ \hat{\vec{\mu}}=\frac{Z_2-Z_1}{2}R\vec{e}''_z-e\sum_{i=1}^n\vec{r}''_i \ , $$ with the most important property that it does not flip sign upon inversion in the space-fixed coordinate system. The angles change as $\theta\rightarrow\pi-\theta$, $\phi\rightarrow\pi+\phi$ upon inversion, which means that[5][6] $$ (x_i',y_i',z_i')\rightarrow(-x_i',-y_i',-z_i') \ \ \ \Leftrightarrow \ \ \ (x_i'',y_i'',z_i'')\rightarrow(-x_i'',+y_i'',+z_i'') \ . $$ The dipole moment thus does not vanish by symmetry in the molecule-fixed frame and it can in principle be calculated as an expectation value with the eigenstates of $H_\text{in}$ (one can show that it does vanish for the homonuclear case $Z_1=Z_2$, $M_1=M_2$, as it should).

The main (or basically only) application of this formalism was the perturbative calculation of the dipole moment for the hydrogen deuteride (HD) molecule. The clamped nucleus approximation could only predict $\vec{\mu}(\text{HD})=\vec{\mu}(\text{H}_2)=\vec{\emptyset}$, since it is insensitive to isotopic mass differences; in reality, HD does have a tiny dipole moment of roughly ${\mu}_\text{exp}(\text{HD})\approx8.78\cdot10^{-4} \, \text{D}$. Blinder, Kolos, Wolniewicz and many other workers of the 60s-80s calculated this to be roughly ${\mu}_\text{calc}(\text{HD})\approx8\cdot10^{-4} \, \text{D}$ with the above approach, although the results did not (and to my knowledge, still do not) agree about the second significant digit.

See Ref. [4] about the details of this technique and for the references to the aforementioned original works. See also Ref. [7] for current experimental and theoretical values, and for an alternative post-Born-Oppenheimer calculation.

This answer is incomplete in the sense that I only dealt with diatomic molecules. Molecule-fixed frames can be found for more than two nuclei as well, but I do not know of any dipole moment calculation for such systems (I doubt anyone actually tried it, if nothing else, due to the severe computational cost). Also, for polyatomic molecules, questions like this one are closely related to the question of whether molecular structure is a meaningful concept beyond the Born-Oppenheimer framework, which is not settled, to say the least.

References

$ $ [1]: NIST database

$ $ [2]: Damour, Quintero-Monsebaiz, Caffarel, Jacquemin, Kossoski, Scemama, Loos: J. Chem. Theory Comput. 19 1 221 (2022)

$ $ [3]: Sutcliffe, Woolley: Phys. Chem. Chem. Phys. 7 3664 (2005)

$ $ [4]: Fernandez, Echave: Chapter 6. of Computational Spectroscopy (editor: Jorg Grunnenberg; 2010) (arXiv link)

$ $ [5]: Kolos, Wolniewicz: Rev. Mod. Phys. 35 3 473 1963

$ $ [6]: Landau, Lifshitz: Quantum Mechanics $-$ Non-relativistic Theory; Sec. 86.

$ $ [7]: Hobson, Valeev, Csaszar, Stanton: Mol. Phys. 107 8 1153 2009

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    Great answer. It is strange that the subtleties of the separation of coordinates are often swept under the rug when the BO approximation is taught, although it is such an essential part for the theoretical framework of chemistry and the concept of a molecule in general. – Hans Wurst Jan 12 '24 at 09:25
  • There is no mention of $\psi^{g}$ and $\psi^{u}$!!! the basis of the question... – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 17:12
  • @TheTiler What do you mean? I explicitly stated that non-degenerate eigenfunctions of ${\cal{H}}$ are also parity eigenfunctions (hence either of $g$ or of $u$ symmetry)... – dennismoore94 Jan 12 '24 at 17:25
  • "The expectation value of the dipole operator $\hat d$ of "such a state contains terms that have overall even symmetry, $c^*_uc_g\langle \psi_n^u|\hat d| \psi_n^g\rangle + h.c.$ This means that a ground state with a nonzero dipole moment is possible. "the question concerns the invariance of the Hamiltonian by inversion and the cause of the dipole for $\psi^{g}....$ – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 17:39
  • https://archive.org/details/l-d-landau-e.-m.-lifshitz-quantum-mechanics-non-vol-3/page/301/mode/1up?view=theater, Already in the link that I gave (1), it must have a central symmetry to talk about $\psi^{g}$ and $\psi^{u}$ therefore atoms like H_{2},.. .., which do not have a dipole... – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 17:51
  • @TheTiler [replying to your first comment, not the Landau one] This would only be true for accidentally degenerate eigenstates (accidental, because there is no symmetry to enforce the degeneracy), and in many (if not most) cases, the ground state is non-degenerate. But even you did find energetically degenerate $u$ and $g$ states, you could combine them in infinitely many ways, so this wouldn't give a meaningful dipole moment either (at least I don't see any physical idea which would fix $c_g$ and $c_u$ in a unique way). – dennismoore94 Jan 12 '24 at 17:58
  • @TheTiler By the way, the part of Landau-Lifshitz you cite talks about molecules in the Born-Oppenheimer approximation, which is exactly what OP wanted to avoid (they talk about symmetry of electronic states). – dennismoore94 Jan 12 '24 at 18:06
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    I have nothing against your answer... :-) – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 18:06
  • No, he only talks about electrons see bottom of page 301/" Not to be confsused that of inversion of coordinates of all the particles in molecule". Landau, Lifchitz – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 18:16
  • What irritated me was that eminent physicists gave the answer and you received a (-1) (like postman) .....:-) – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 18:32
  • @TheTiler Right, sorry, I did not look at the footnotes. Actually, I forgot that L&L had a discussion on inversion in the molecule-fixed frame (Sec. 86), I should add this as a reference. What do you mean by "received a (-1)"? No downvotes on this answer (so far...). – dennismoore94 Jan 12 '24 at 18:38
  • See the last answer (mine). – The Tiler Jan 12 '24 at 18:47
  • @HansWurst Thank you! I kind of understand why non-BO theory is not stressed in lectures; it leads to some rather awkward questions about the existence or non-existence of molecular structures, and how well chemistry can be understood from first principles. – dennismoore94 Jan 13 '24 at 19:03
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Generally, permutations of particle coordinates of particles of different kind don't qualify as a symmetry. The Hamiltonian has subdivided into symmetric sub-sums of 1-particle operators, symmetric pair operators in its special tensor product of identical particles, and the sum over pairs of such subgroups.

The conventional corpus of quantum theory books avoids the fact, that all operators in such a mixed system have to be completed with a tensorial map of identities in all other particle coordinates, e.g. the Schrödinger operator of $NH_4$ has th full Form

$$\mathbb H = \frac{P_N^2}{2M_N} \otimes 1^{\otimes 3} + 1\otimes \frac{p_{H\, 1}^2}{2m_H} \otimes 1^{\otimes 3 } \dots + V_N(X_N-x_{H,1})\otimes 1^{\otimes 3} +\dots + 1\otimes V_{H,H}(x_1-x_2)\otimes 1^{\otimes 2}\dots$$

This notation is suited to work on a tensor product of 5 Hilbert spaces, the four electron subspace represented as the antisymmetric subspace of the free 4-tensor product. Spin complicates the situation, notationally, too.

The basis sets of states of the one particle spaces are taken from an eigenvalue problem, wrt. symmetries somehow near the actual problem. With respect to accuracy of approximations, without much success beyond the classical solvalble 3-body problems with a high symmetry.

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The state of a system has to transform as a representation of the symmetry group of the Hamiltonian. That presentation is not necessarily the fully symmetric one. For molecules you need to consider representations of point groups. See e.g. https://www.chem.uci.edu/~lawm/10-2.pdf

Note after reading comments: If you would solve the full hamiltonian you would find superpositions of combined nuclear and electronic states that transform according to the representations of the point group $C_i$. Point groups only require a fixed position of the entire molecule. Use of point groups does not require the Born-Oppenheimer approximation.

As an example, consider NH$_3$. It is well known to have an electric dipole moment. However, it can spontaneously invert its structure and by this its dipole moment. The ground state for a model with sufficient flexibility is a pair of states, one symmetric and one asymmetric, that are separated by an energy corresponding to about 25 GHz. Both states have zero electric dipole moment. This shows that for a sufficiently flexible model the solutions transform as representations of the symmetry group of the hamiltonian. Only at time scales shorter than 40 ps there is an electric dipole moment. https://demonstrations.wolfram.com/AmmoniaInversionClassicalAndQuantumModels/

my2cts
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    But the question is exactly about those situations when you cannot rely on the point group concept, since you do not work in the Born-Oppenheimer separation. If nuclei are treated as active quantum particles, then you only have more general symmetries (inversion/rotation of all coordinates, permutation of identical particles, charge conjugation, etc.). – dennismoore94 Dec 21 '23 at 11:34
  • If you would solve the full hamiltonian you would find superpositions of combined nuclear and electronic states that transform according to the representations of the point group $C_i$. – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 11:54
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    The complete group of symmetries is actually much bigger than $C_i$. But even if you only consider inversions, that already points to OP's problem: how to reconcile the experimental fact of molecules having a dipole moment with the exact electron-nucleus energy eigenstates being also parity eigenstates. Referencing point groups is not helpful, since point groups already imply the treatment of nuclei as point charges in fixed positions. Solving the electronic Schrodinger equation for H$_2$O will give you a dipole moment, while solving the full e-N equation will seemingly not. – dennismoore94 Dec 21 '23 at 12:06
  • Molecular point groups only come into play once the nuclei are assume to have fixed positions. But we have no fixed positions as long as we treat the nuclei on the same footing as the electrons. And the fundamental Hamiltonian clearly leads to an expectation value of zero for the permanent dipole moment for non-degenerate ground states. This is somewhat disconcerting, given that real molecules have permanent dipoles. So how is it, that we end up with molecules with permanent dipoles despite the properties of the principle Hamiltonian? It is not obvious in my opinion. – Hans Wurst Dec 21 '23 at 13:18
  • @dennismoore Point groups only require a fixed position of the entire molecule. Use of a point group also does not imply the Born-Oppenheimer approximation. See my updated answer.

    Which other group operations would you like to include?

    – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 14:33
  • @HansWurst See my updated answer. – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 14:35
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    So you agree that any non degenerate ground state cannot have a permanent dipole moment? How do you resolve this with the observation of molecules with permanent dipole moment? – Hans Wurst Dec 21 '23 at 16:15
  • @HansWurst Take the example of NH$3$. This molecule has a permanent electric dipole moment. However ammonia may invert spontaneously. At much longer than electronic time scale it does _not have a permanent dipole moment. The time scale is close to 25 GHz. https://demonstrations.wolfram.com/AmmoniaInversionClassicalAndQuantumModels/ – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 16:26
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    That does not resolve the problem. The expectation value of an eigenstate has no time-dependency. We should be able to average at any point in time over an ensemble in a pure state and get zero-dipole moment. Why does that not happen? – Hans Wurst Dec 21 '23 at 17:49
  • @HansWurst How do you mean? The solutions I am talking about have no time dependency. They are eigenfunctions of the hamiltonian. That is, at a time scale exceeding 25 GHz. – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 18:02
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    It sounded to me that you were talking about the inversion process like a dynamic process, since you mention a time scale. Looking at your link, I assumed you were thinking about a superposition state of the ground state of the double well potential and the first excited state of the double well. Such a superposition state would have an amplitude that oscillates between the two minima, corresponding to an inversion motion. But that is a superposition state and not an energy eigenstate. I think we are talking past each other at this point. – Hans Wurst Dec 21 '23 at 19:18
  • Right, every subgroup of $O(3)$ can be called a point group, that was a slip-up on my side, sorry. But your answer and comments still do not resolve how dipole moment arises when the full molecular Hamiltonian is considered. The abelian subgroup $C_i$ (inversion of electron and nuclear coordinates) has only one-dimensional irreps leading to even/odd parity states, both of which have zero average dipole moment. For example, what about the dipole moment of HCl (as a system of 18 electrons and 2 nuclei)? The "zero due to fast umbrella inversion" argument certainly does not work here... – dennismoore94 Dec 21 '23 at 19:28
  • @dennismoore94 Good point. I would argue that in the case of HCl the inversion probability is incredibly much smaller than in the NH$3$ case. NH$_3$ is a pet example because both time scales are accessible. Another example: a phosphorous donor atom in a silicon lattice has no lattice symmetry at any reasonable time scale. Yet the hopping hamiltonian element is never _strictly zero. Therefor the stationary solution will be a linear combination of P at every Si site with phase factors corresponding to a crystal wave function. It is a matter of time scale. – my2cts Dec 21 '23 at 22:39
  • Downvoting in general is silly. To downvote a correct answer is worse than silly. It is stupid. – my2cts Jan 11 '24 at 18:17
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Suppose that:$\;\;|\psi\rangle=c_{g}|\psi^{g}\rangle+c_{u}|\psi^{u}\rangle\;\;$

By reporting in the eigenvalue equation: $H|\psi\rangle=E|\psi\rangle\;,$by multiplying on the left by $\langle\psi^{g}|$ and by $\langle\psi^{u}|$, we obtain the system:$$\begin{cases} \langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle c_{g}+\langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle c_{u}=E(c_{g}+c_{u}S)\\ \langle \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle c_{g}+\langle \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle c_{u}=E(Sc_{g}+c_{u}) \end{cases}$$ Assuming that: $$\langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle= \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle =E\;,\;\langle \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle=\langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle=0\;\;(3)\;,\;\int_{\mathbb{R^{3}}}\psi^{u}\psi^{g}d^{3}r=0=S$$ if we assume that: $$\langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle= \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle =e\;,\;\langle \psi^{u}|H|\psi^{g}\rangle=\langle \psi^{g}|H|\psi^{u}\rangle=v\;,\;\int_{\mathbb{R^{3}}}\psi^{u}\psi^{g}d^{3}r=S$$ we obtain: $$E=\frac{e \pm v }{1\pm S}=E_{\pm}$$

as in

so $|\psi\rangle=c_{g}|\psi^{g}\rangle$ or $\psi\rangle=c_{u}|\psi^{u}\rangle$, and in addition, the symbols $g,u$ (see (1)) are used when there is a cetre of symmetry that is to say when we have for example two identical atom .

Moreover, if the molecule is homonuclear (A = B), the system is symmetrical in inversion with respect to the middle of the bond. The only invariant vector in this operation is the zero vector: no dipole moment. the existence of a permanent dipole moment d, of greater or lesser magnitude, results physically from the fact that, given different nuclear charges, electrons are more attracted to one nucleus than to the other (the more electronegative one), giving an asymmetrical electron density that is not invariant to reflection (or parity)(2).

(1) non-relativistic quantum mechanics landau

(2) Claude Aslangul: Mécanique quantique 2, Développements et applications à basse énergie.

(3) Landau,Lifchitz

The Tiler
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