Background: I was always under the impression that when considering the Stern-Gerlach (SG) Experiment, the interpretation of the split of the beams is that the spin $1/2$ particle get measured the first time when it moves into the $B\neq 0 $ area, and is subsequently diverted upwards or downwards, depending on the outcome $\pm 1/2$ of the spin measurement. Finally the particle will get measured a second time at the screen, to be registered by us.
Confusion: Now I came across several sources, e.g. Coherence and Entanglement in SG experiment or Modern analysis of SG experiment that model the interaction part of the magnetic field exactly with the Hamiltonian
\begin{equation} H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + \mu \vec{B} \cdot \vec{s} \end{equation}
and hence model the time evolution of the beam not via "measurement + unitary time evolution" but only through "unitary time evolution" according to the above Hamiltonian. They assume the initial state to be
\begin{equation} |\phi \rangle = \left( \int |z\rangle \phi_0(t) \right) \otimes (\alpha |+ \rangle + \beta |- \rangle \end{equation}
\begin{equation} \phi_0(z,t) := \frac{1}{\sqrt{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} } e^{-\frac{z^2}{4\sigma^2}} \end{equation}
The exact time evolution is then
\begin{equation} |\phi (t) \rangle = \int |z \rangle \otimes \left( \alpha \phi_+(z,t) |+ \rangle + \beta \phi_-(z,t) |- \rangle \right) \end{equation}
\begin{equation} \phi_{\pm}(z,t) := Ne^{-i\theta(z,t)} e^{-\frac{1}{4\sigma(t)^2}(z \mp \overline{\Delta z}(t))^2} \end{equation}
where $N$ is a normalisation factor, $\theta(z,t)$ is represents a phase shift and
\begin{equation} \overline{\Delta z}(t) = \mu \frac{t^2}{2m} \frac{\partial B}{\partial z} \end{equation}
So, interpreting the final state, when the particle hits the screen / gets measured at the screen, due to having two gaussian packets whose Centers are separated, one can expect to have two peaks, separated vertically.
Question: This replacement of the 1. measurement by a unitary time evolution seems to be contradictory as I thought measurement and unitary evolution describe inherently different time evolutions - so might it be that the spin is not measured when it flies into the $B\neq 0$ area ? But if it is measured, it seems like the measurement description is an approximation... and then in similar vein one could (in principle) replace the particle hitting the screen thereafter for the 2. measurement with another unitary time evolution? Or what else seems to be my misconception here?