Why are tree-level diagrams classical?

Asked Mar 25 '24 at 03:42

Active Mar 25 '24 at 05:21

Viewed 42 times

I see this statement from time to time.

But when I look at scattering in QED or phi-4 theory, I don't understand how classical calculation can reproduce these amplitudes.

To what extent is this statement valid?

edited Mar 25 '24 at 05:21

Qmechanic

asked Mar 25 '24 at 03:42

Bababeluma

2

Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/270428/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Mar 25 '24 at 05:21

0 Answers0