Questions tagged [dirac-equation]

A fully relativistic (Lorentz covariant) description, first put forward by Paul Dirac in 1928, of the first quantized, spin one half fermion with nonzero mass. Physical notions to do with this equation include the Dirac sea, Dirac hole theory, the Klein Paradox and the fine structure of the Hydrogen spectrum.

The Dirac equation describes the first quantized, spin one half fermion with nonzero mass in a fully Lorentz covariant way. It is a linear differential equation defining the evolution of a vector of four complex quantities (a bispinor) that transforms in a specific way under a Lorentz transformation. The equation's co-efficients, the so-called gamma matrices, are elements of the Clifford algebra $C\ell_{1,3}(\mathbb{R})$ and indeed generate this algebra. The solutions are superpositions of a fermion and its antiparticle and their collocation in the Dirac bispinor gives rise to the Klein paradox. The Dirac equation explains the fine structure of the Hydrogen spectrum but must be coupled to the electromagnetic field through $\partial_\mu \to\partial_\mu + i q A_\mu$ to explain the Lamb shift and spontaneous emission.

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Dirac equation algebraic derivation, a gauge symmetry

Suppose i try to derive the most generic Dirac-like equation (that is, as factors of first-order expression in momenta and mass operator where we allow coefficients that are associative, don't necessarily commute to each other, but they commute with…
lurscher
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Identity 3.51 in Peskin/Schroeder

This identity is used when solving the Dirac equation in Peskin & Schroeder and other texts: $$(p\cdot \sigma)(p\cdot \bar \sigma)=p^2=m^2 \tag{3.51},$$ and although it seems simple enough I cannot for the life of me arrive at the answer. This is as…
Charlie
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Two difficulties in Dirac's derivation of the velocity and spin of a particle

(i) In Dirac’s book, The Principles of Quantum Mechanics, there is something quite baffling about the observed velocity of a particle. On p. 262 of the fourth edition, he wrote, 'We can conclude that a measurement of a component of the velocity of a…
Damon
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Understanding the substitution of a solution of Dirac equation in the Dirac equation

Dirac equation is $$(i \gamma^{\mu} \partial_{\mu}) \psi =0. $$ a solution of Dirac equation for massless fermion case is $$\psi (x) =u (\vec{p}) e^{ip^{\mu} x_{\mu}}.$$ substitution should give $$(\gamma^{0} p_{0}-\vec{\gamma}.\vec{p})…
user193331
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Zitterbewegung for massless particle

Is it possible for a massless particle to undergo zitterbewegung? In massive Dirac theory the Zitterbewegung frequency comes out to be $2mc^2/\hbar$. It looks like the effect will vanish for a massless particle. But the effect is due to the…
Sumit
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Is there a coordinate-free Dirac equation?

Dirac equation is always written with indices. Is there any way to write it down without any indices ABSTRACT or not, and without coordinates,basis vectors etc..?
Kugutsu-o
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Is it possible to circumvent matrices in Dirac's coup by looking at alternative factorizations in the momentum domain?

Question: I was looking at Dirac's factorization of the Klein Gordon Equation and became inspired to see if there was an alternative way to yield some of its results without resorting to 4x4 matrices. I came up with something interesting and so I…
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Dirac equation for $\bar{\psi}$

I know that the Dirac equation is $$i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}\psi=m\psi$$. How do I use this to show that $$(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\psi})\gamma^{\mu}=im\bar{\psi}?$$
nightmarish
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A question on the Dirac equation

In Quarks and Leptons by Halzen and Martin p. 105 it says: The bonus embodied in the Dirac equation is the extra twofold degeneracy. This means that there must be another observable which commutes with $H$ and $\mathbf{P}$, whose eigenvalues can be…
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Interaction between the positrons in the Dirac theory

It seems that Dirac did not consider the interaction between the positrons, right? How could he ignore them?
John
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Why is the Dirac Sea concept taught in physics courses without explaining that is fundamentally flawed?

Many physics text books reference to the concept of the Dirac sea as explanation of negative frequency solutions of the Dirac equation. It is supposed to be a bottomless "sea" of filled electron states. The other physical implications of this theory…
my2cts
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