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I have a small question about unitization of (unital) $C^*$-algebras. I first asked on math.stackexchange because it is basic theory, but I still have no suitable answer, the link https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1336297/unitization-of-a-unital-c-algebra .

I will describe my problem: Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, which is non-unital. Than you can prove that $$\|(a,\lambda)\|=\|L_{(a,\lambda)}\|,$$ with $L_{(a,\lambda)}:A\to A,\; b\mapsto ab+\lambda b$, defines a norm on the vector space $A_1=A\oplus\mathbb{C}$. But you need, that $A$ is non-unital to prove: if $\|(a,\lambda)\|=\|L_{(a,\lambda)}\|=0, \Rightarrow (a,\lambda)=(0,0)$.

In literature frequently it is assumed that $A$ is non-unital and then you unitize it, for example here http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/unitization+of+a+C-star-algebra. But there is not much about the unital case in literature.

The process seems to fail, if $A$ is unital and you want to take the norm above on $A_1$. In literature, I read that you can take $\|(a,\lambda)\|=max\{\|a\|,|\lambda|\}$ in this case. But is seems curious that you have to take a different norm in this case.

My question is, is it correct to take an other norm if $A$ is unital ? But it's strange that the unitization-process depends on if $A$ is unital or not. Regards

Edit. I try to precise my question: is there a uniform construction of the norm on A_1 and a uniform proof that it really is a C*-norm which does not use the case distinction unital/non-unital?

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    Please include the link to your math.stackexchange question -- and be aware that before cross-posting you should wait a reasonable time for an answer on math.stackexchange (say, a week or two). – Stefan Kohl Jun 24 '15 at 09:04
  • I added the link. Sorry, I was impatient, next time I wait a longer time. Shall I delate my question here? I use MSE and M.O. for the first time. Sorry – Sabrina Gemsa Jun 24 '15 at 09:09
  • See Theorem 2.1.6 in the book by Murphy, he treats also the case where $A$ is already unital. – UwF Jun 24 '15 at 09:49
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    @UwF: If I understand the question correctly, then "treating the case..." is exactly what causes confusion here. Why should there be any case distinction in the definitions or the proofs between non-unital algebras that just happen to have forgotten that they really have an identity and non-unital algebras that genuinely do not have one? If an abstract existence proof of the unitalization functor (e.g. from the adjoint functor theorem) works without this completely unnatural distinction, why can't there be an explicit construction of the unitalisation and its norm that does? – Johannes Hahn Jun 24 '15 at 16:06
  • @JohannesHahn: The proof in Murphy's book answers your question (and the one by the OP), I believe. There are several procedures available to make C*-algebras unital. Passing to the multiplier algebra is probably more elegant (and more functorial) - this is done in Theorem 2.1.5 in Murphy's book (but if you algebra did not have a unit, then it usually adds a lot more than just a unit). If you want to use $A_1$, then you will never keep your original algebra, even if it was already unital. – UwF Jun 24 '15 at 16:14
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    Yes, of course, $A_1$ should always be bigger than $A$. Exactly because the unital/non-unital distinction on the input is completely unnatural when one wants to define a functor ${C^\ast-algebras}\to{C^\ast-algebras with one}$. Also the relation $(C_0(X))_1 = C(X^+)$ demands that, because the one-point-compactification adds a point whether or not $X$ is compact. I'll try to have look in Murphys book as soon as possible. – Johannes Hahn Jun 24 '15 at 16:27
  • @UwF I've looked up 2.1.6 in Murphy's book. He makes the same unnatural distinction to prove that there is a C*-norm on the unitalisation. – Johannes Hahn Jun 24 '15 at 17:23
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    thank you, I have looked in Murphy's book too, there is the distinction between A unital and nonunital too and you get different norms here. And Johannes pointed out what I want to know. I try to precise my question. – Sabrina Gemsa Jun 24 '15 at 18:09
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    Just FYI: I've just changed the nlab page to reflect the fact that $|L_{(a,\lambda)}|{B(A)}$ does not equal $|(a,\lambda)|{A^+}$ in the unital case. – Johannes Hahn Jun 24 '15 at 18:21
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    To my eye, the underlying question is this: suppose $A$ is a $B^$-algebra (i.e. a Banach algebra equipped with an isometric conjugate linear involution that satisfies the $C^$-identity). How do we equip the algebraic unitization $A\oplus {\bf C}$ with a norm that also satisfies the $C^$-identity? A more general problem, where one replaces $C^$-algebras by operator algebras, was treated in some old work of Ralf Meyer http://arxiv.org/abs/funct-an/9710001 -- I think this may also be somewhere in the book of Blecher and le Merdy, but I don't have my copy to hand right now – Yemon Choi Jun 24 '15 at 23:00
  • Isnt't this more a question of cosmetics? We know what the $$-algebra structure of $A_1$ should be, so there exists at most one norm that makes it a $C^$-algebra. You could make the construction look more uniform, if you let it act on $A\oplus\mathbb{C}$. – UwF Jun 25 '15 at 10:26
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    @UwF True, but I have some sympathy with the OP's desire for a unified or "canonical" or "natural" construction – Yemon Choi Jun 25 '15 at 12:52
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    @UwF: Alright then, let $A_1$ act on $A\oplus\mathbb{C}$. What norm do you use on $A\oplus\mathbb{C}$ without being circular or having the same non-uniformity we're trying to avoid? I've tried a few options and I didn't really work out. Maybe I've just chosen the wrong norm... – Johannes Hahn Jun 25 '15 at 15:13
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    I thought of taking for $A\oplus\mathbb{C}$ the $C^*$-algebraic direct sum, i.e. $|(b,\mu)|=\max(|b|,|\mu|)$, and letting $A_1$ act on $A\oplus\mathbb{C}$ as $(a,\lambda)(b,\mu)=((a+\lambda)b,\lambda\mu)$. – UwF Jun 25 '15 at 15:37
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    @UwF Oh, that's what you meant. I've just tried it and if I didn't overlook something, a trivial modification of the usual proof that $(a,\lambda)\mapsto|L_(a,\lambda)|$ is the $C^\ast$-norm in the non-unital case works with your action too. Thank you. Do you want to turn your comment into a proper answer? – Johannes Hahn Jun 25 '15 at 16:49
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    @UwF How do you prove that your action is faithful without returning to the two (classical) cases ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 26 '15 at 05:55
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    @DuchampGérardH.E.: Suppose some $(a,\lambda)\in A_1$ acts trivially. Then you apply it first to $(0,1)$ to see that $\lambda=0$ and then to $(a^,0)$ to get $a=0$. I am not* saying that such a construction is better than the classical proof, for this reason I don't want to turn it into an answer, either. – UwF Jun 26 '15 at 06:55
  • @UwF ah ! of course, thanks. I think that your idea is interesting. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 26 '15 at 08:02
  • thank you very much! This idea sound really good and does satisfy me. Thanks! – Sabrina Gemsa Jun 26 '15 at 08:13

4 Answers4

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The question is already answer but there is a point I want to add:

Some time ago I wrote a paper about the Gelfand duality for non-unital algebra within constructive mathematics, my proof goes through the unitarization process, but in the framework of constructive/intuitionist mathematics the case distinction between unital/non-unital c* algebra is really impossible, so I had to write a proof which is completely without this distinction. It is essentially the argument outlined by Johannes Hahn (which can be found in details in my paper arxiv 1412.2009).

But it is in fact possible to construct two different unitarization process: the one described by Johannes Hahn and in my paper, and another one that uses the action of $A + \mathbb{C}$ on $A$ as in the original question.

Both are legitimate and produces $C^*$-algebras. Classically the diference between the two process is often overlooked as they agree on non-unital $C^*$-algebra and on unital algebras one gives the algebra you started with and the other gives the algebra $A^{+} = A + \mathbb{C}$. But constructively, when it is not always possible to decide wether a given algebra is unital or not, the two process are a lot more different.

This being said there is one aspect that can be seen classically on which the two constructions are very different (and to some extent it is related to the fact they are constructively different): it is their functoriality:

  • the process that change a unital algebra into $A^+$ is functorial on all algebra and all morphisms.

  • The process that preserve unital algebras is not functorial on all morphisms but only on a restricted class of morphisms, for example all non-degenerate morphisms.

Simon Henry
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This answer is the solution UwF provided in the comments.

Let $A_1$ act on the normed space $V:=A\oplus\mathbb{C}$ with norm $\|(b,z)\|_V:=\max\{\|b\|_A,|z|\}$ via the algebra homomorphism $A_1\to B(V), (a,\lambda)\mapsto \tilde{L}_{(a,\lambda)}$ where $\tilde{L}_{(a,\lambda)}(b,z) := (ab+\lambda b,\lambda z)$. One can verify that this homomorphism is injective so that $\|(a,\lambda)\|_{A_1} := \|\tilde{L}_{(a,\lambda)}\|_{B(V)}$ is a norm on $A_1$. An easy modification of the usual proof where $A_1$ acts only on $A$ shows that this norm is indeed the $C^\ast$-Norm on $A_1$.

Nowhere in this proof is a case-distinction between unital and non-unital $A$ needed.

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Happy to find the present posts to get introduced to a unified unitisation procedure!

I'd like to elaborate further$-$thus permitting myself a higher verbosity level$-$on Johannes Hahn's answer, based on UwF's proposal (in a comment to the OP).
Let as before $V=A\oplus\mathbb{C}$ normed by $\max\{\|\cdot\|_A,|\cdot|\}$, then the $C^*$-norm on $A_1$ reads $$ \sup\big\{\max\{\|ab+\lambda b\|_A,|\lambda z|\}\;\big|\; \max\{\|b\|_A, |z|\} = 1 \big\} $$ $b$ and $z$, satisfying $\|b\|_A=1$ and $|z|=1$, may be varied independently to obtain $$ =\;\sup\big\{\max\{\|ab+\lambda b\|_A,|\lambda|\}\;\big|\; \|b\|_A = 1\big\}\; = $$

$$ \max\Big\{|\lambda|\:,\:\sup\big\{\|ab+\lambda b\|_A\,\big|\,\|b\|_A = 1\big\}\Big\}\; = \;\|(a,\lambda)\|_{A_1} $$ This expression covers both the cases "$A$ is unital" and "$A$ has no unit". The second argument to '$\max$' equals the operator norm of $L_a + \lambda\,\text{id}_A\in\mathscr{L}(A)$, where $L_a$ denotes left multiplication by $a$.

An important step consists in verifying $\forall x = (a,\lambda)\in A_1$ the $C^*$-condition $\|x\|^2_{A_1} = \|x^*x\|_{A_1}$ which is straightforward as declared in Johannes Hahn's answer: For any $b$ with $\|b\|_A=1$ one has $$ \|xb\|^2_A \le \|x^*xb\|_A \le \|L_{x^*x}\|_{\mathscr{L}(A)} $$ hence the inequality $$ \|x\|^2_{A_1} = \max\big\{|\lambda|^2,\|L_x\|^2_{\mathscr{L}(A)}\big\} \le \max\big\{|\lambda|^2,\|L_{x^*x}\|_{\mathscr{L}(A)}\big\} = \|x^*x\|_{A_1} $$ Because the operator norm is submultiplicative, one deduces $\|x\|_{A_1}=\|x^*\|_{A_1}$ which in turn proves the $C^*$-condition.

Remark: Adopting the unitisation product as the action of $A_1$ on $V$, instead of the proposed one, yields failure in the case $A =\mathbb{C}$ already:
Consider the element $(-2,1)\in A_1$. Its square is $(0,1)$, whence $$ \|(-2,1)^*(-2,1)\|_{A_1} = 1 $$ but $$ \|(-2,1)\|_{A_1}\; =\; \sup\big\{\|(-2,1)(a,\lambda)\| \big| \max\{|a|,|\lambda|\}=1\big\} $$ $$ = \;\sup\big\{\|(-a-2\lambda,\lambda)\| \big| \max\{|a|,|\lambda|\}=1\big\} \; =\; 3 $$

$\quad\Longrightarrow\; C^*$-condition is not fulfilled.

A kind of Archive
The following case distinction stems from the primary version of this answer; as it may still be helpful it is kept here:

$\quad A$ has no unit
Then the second value entering the '$\max$' in the gray block above equals the desired $C^*$-norm $$\|(a,\lambda)\|_{A_1} = \sup\big\{\|ab+\lambda b\|_A\,\big|\,\|b\|_A = 1\big\}$$

see e.g. [Pedersen: "Analysis now", 4.3.9 Lemma], also for proving the $C^*$-condition.
Since $A_1\twoheadrightarrow\mathbb{C}, (a,\lambda)\mapsto\lambda$ is a *-homomorphism, thus norm-nonincreasing, one has $ |\lambda| \le \|(a,\lambda)\|_{A_1}$. Hence considering the maximum is redundant.

$\quad A$ is unital
with unit $e$, then its unitisation $A_1$ is (isomorphic to) a direct sum of $C^*$-algebras $$A_1\overset{\cong}{\longrightarrow} A\oplus\mathbb{C},\; a+\lambda 1\longmapsto (a+\lambda e,\lambda(1-e)),$$

cf. [Murphy: "C*-Algebras and Operator Theory", 2.1.6 Thm], and $$\|(a,\lambda)\|_{A_1} = \max\big\{ \|a+\lambda e\|_A , |\lambda|\big\}$$ does the job as $C^*$-norm on $A_1$ (this rectifies a statement in the OP).

It coincides with the general expression above because (left) regular representations of $C^*$-algebras are isometric, i.e., $\|L_a\|_{\mathscr{L}(A)} = \|a\|_A$ holds $\forall a$ in any $A$
(to show equality: "$\le$" only depends on the norm being submultiplicative,
whereas "$\ge$" results from choosing $a^*/\|a\|$ if $a\ne 0$, combined with the $C^*$-condition).
Making the operator norm definition explicit within the current situation yields $$\|a+\lambda e\|_A = \sup\big\{\|(a+\lambda e)b\|_A\,\big|\,\|b\|_A = 1\big\}$$

Hanno
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If fact, if you apply the unitization process on an already unital $C^*$-algebra (say $\mathcal{A}$), then the "old" unit $1_\mathcal{A}$ remains an idempotent (this is precisely the projector on $\mathcal{A}$ parallel to $\mathbb{C}1_{new}$) but ceases to be the unit (this rôle being taken by the fresh unit). $$ \mathcal{A}_1=\mathcal{A}\oplus \mathbb{C}1_{new} $$ and in the sector $\mathcal{A}$, the new norm coincides with the old one.

Now it is clear that your question can be made rigorous with the help of categories. Let us call $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg (resp. $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg$_\mathbf{1}$) be the category of $C^*$-algebras with or without unit (resp. the category of $C^*$-algebras with unit) with morphisms all $*$-homomorphisms between them (resp. all unital $*$-homomorphisms between them), it seems to me clear that the unitization solves the following universal problem

Given $\mathcal{A}$ in $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg, provide $\mathcal{A}_1$ and an arrow $\alpha : \mathcal{A}\rightarrow F(\mathcal{A}_1)$ ($F$ being the forgetful functor $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg$_\mathbf{1}$ towards $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg) such that for all arrow $\beta : \mathcal{A}\rightarrow F(\mathcal{B})$ ($\mathcal{B}$ is unital), there exists a unique morphism $\beta_1 : \mathcal{A}_1\rightarrow \mathcal{B}$ of $\mathbf{C^*}$-alg$_\mathbf{1}$ which fulfills $\beta=F(\beta_1)\alpha$.

As usual the solution (if it exists) is unique up to isomorphism. To show the existence we construct one particular solution and this needs two cases. This comes from the fact, (general in algebra) that, in the case when $A$ has already a unit, the representation of $A_1$ within the operator algebra of $A$ by left multiplication is no longer faithful. So, as to define the norm, we need a faithful representation, we only consider it in the case without unit and compute it directly in the case when $A$ is already unital. This is well illustrated in Bourbaki Spectral Theory Chapter 1 Paragraph 6 Proposition 2 unitization, the statement says "there is a unique norm ..." (in all cases, this answers your edit but the construction is not uniform due to the problem of faithfulness). Hope it helps.

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    This doesn't answer any of the questions, doesn't it? – Johannes Hahn Jun 24 '15 at 16:32
  • Does anybody care to explain this downvote ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 25 '15 at 02:45
  • I don't see how this addresses the issue of existence (or construction) of the left adjoint between the relevant categories – Yemon Choi Jun 25 '15 at 12:49
  • This is stated in the (grey) block, the problem is stated as "for each object of $\mathcal{C}$, provide an object of $\mathcal{C}_1$ and an arrow ... " do not hesitate to ask clarification ... – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 25 '15 at 13:33
  • Just to clarify: are you saying that the Bourbaki reference which you provide demonstrates the existence of a C*-norm on the unitization? – Yemon Choi Jun 25 '15 at 14:58
  • Yes, I'll put the scan (in the evening) but the one I have is in french, sorry (they call the $C^*$-algebras "algèbres stellaires"). The reference is the same in english (only the pages change). – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 25 '15 at 15:24
  • @YemonChoi I put temporarily the page of the proof in my answer. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 25 '15 at 19:14
  • Merci, je l'ai vue. Ca me semble comme la meme preuve suggerée par UwF; d'accord, ca marche. – Yemon Choi Jun 25 '15 at 20:56
  • Thank's a lot, Duchamp Gérard H.E., your answer is helpful for me. But sorry, I don't understand french:D. – Sabrina Gemsa Jun 26 '15 at 08:19
  • @eddy9000 I don't know if this volume has been translated (has it ?). In fact, I wanted to stress that the statement was uniform and solves a universal problem. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 26 '15 at 11:59
  • @eddy9000 If the google translator is to be trusted, the excerpt just gives the proof that you already know including the case-distinction unital/non-unital. – Johannes Hahn Jun 26 '15 at 15:12
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    @JohannesHahn There is a big misunderstanding here. I always wrote that the Bourbaki statement is uniform and the proof is case studying. The action of UwF is a good idea as I said, but I am not shure that if you write the proof completely (evaluation of the norms) you do not have to return to the case study (well, I have done it although) [You said : Nowhere in this proof is a case-distinction between unital and non-unital] (a) If it is the case it is very good news (b) If it is your choice could you explain your downvote ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jun 26 '15 at 16:06