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Given an orthogonal matrix $O$ with dimensions $4n \times 4n$ and $\det O = -1$, how to prove that $\det[O_{11} - O_{22} + i (O_{12} + O_{21})] = 0$?

Here $O$ is a block matrix $[[O_{11}, O_{12}], [O_{21}, O_{22}]]$, and all blocks have equal size.

An equivalent statement is the following: if $\det O = -1$, then $\det(\Omega - O \Omega O^T)=0$, with $\Omega = [[0, I],[-I, 0]]$. The reason why I believe this is correct is due to the physical meaning of it (it's about presence of bound states in a certain system), and numerical checks. I am not sure why odd $n$ doesn't work, but it makes sense for physics reasons.

Example of a matrix for which it works is below:

$$\left(\begin{array}{cccc} 0.44090815& -0.71206204& -0.44576549& 0.31600755 \\\ 0.12767731& 0.35584235& 0.19884606& 0.90417641 \\\ 0.88038152& 0.229104 & 0.30519084& -0.28159952 \\\ 0.11927654& 0.56022784& -0.81768693& -0.05749749 \end{array}\right)$$

Edit(Will Jagy):In particular, this fails for $(4n - 2) \times (4n - 2),$ as in the $ 2 \times 2$ $$ O \; \; = \; \; \left( \begin{array}{cc} \cos t & \sin t\\\ \sin t & - \cos t \end{array} \right) , $$ with the relevant $ 1 \times 1$ matrix of complex numbers $$ \left( \cos t - ( - \cos t) + i ( \sin t + \sin t )\right) = \left( 2 e^{it} \right) . $$

Edit(Anton Akhmerov): Yet another statement which could solve the problem is the following: Prove that any $4n\times 4n$ orthogonal matrix $O$ can be brought to a block-diagonal form by a transformation $O\rightarrow S_1 O S_2$ with $S_1$ and $S_2$ symplectic matrices. If this was correct, the rest follows immediately.

  • 2
    By resorting to a normal form you can reduce to the case of considering $\det(O_{11} - O_{22}) = 0$ only. In the $4 \times 4$-case you get $$\left(\begin{array}{cccc} \cos{\alpha} & -\sin{\alpha} & & \
    \sin{\alpha} & \cos{\alpha} & & \
    & & \cos{\beta} & \sin{\beta} \
    & & \sin{\beta} & -\cos{\beta} \end{array}\right)$$ for which the claim follows from $\sin^{2} + \cos^{2} = 1$.
    – Theo Buehler Dec 01 '10 at 17:36
  • 1
    The problem is that there is no rotational invariance, so I cannot bring the matrix to a normal form, or at least I don't see how to eliminate offdiagonal blocks. – Anton Akhmerov Dec 01 '10 at 17:46
  • @Anton: Ooops, sorry, so I need to think about it a little more. – Theo Buehler Dec 01 '10 at 17:54
  • Is it possible that you have confused $\Omega$ with $O$ in $\det\left(\Omega - O\Omega O^T\right)$ ? – darij grinberg Dec 01 '10 at 18:18
  • And the matrix $O$ is supposed to be real? – darij grinberg Dec 01 '10 at 18:22
  • @darij: No, I didn't confuse $O$ with $\Omega$, you can check with the example matrix.

    Also an orthogonal matrix is a real matrix satisfying $O^TO=I$.

    – Anton Akhmerov Dec 01 '10 at 18:26
  • Thanks for the clarifications. Have you checked whether $\Omega$ really needs to be the matrix you gave, or can be any skew-symmetric matrix? – darij grinberg Dec 01 '10 at 18:37
  • Random skew-symmetric doesn't work. Skew-symmetric ones of a form $O_2\Omega O_2^T$ obviously work if $\det O = 1$ and don't work if $\det O = -1$. – Anton Akhmerov Dec 01 '10 at 18:43
  • @Willie: $\Omega$ has to be skew-symmetric in addition. Also see my comment above. – Anton Akhmerov Dec 01 '10 at 18:49
  • Is your matrix 4n by 4n or actually 2n by 2n? So far the statement looks wrong to me: 1 2 2 3 –  Dec 01 '10 at 17:02
  • It's 4n by 4n.
  • Your example is not orthogonal, $O^TO \neq 1$.
  • I have checked the statement with random matrices.

    – Anton Akhmerov Dec 01 '10 at 17:06