I have this problem, with a first-step resolution:
Obtain the equation of motion for a particle falling vertically under the influence of gravity when frictional forces obtainable from a dissipation function $\frac12kv^2$ are present. Integrate the equation to obtain the velocity as a function of time and show that the maximum possible velocity for a fall from rest is $v+mg/k$.
Answer:
Work in one dimension, and use the most simple Lagrangian possible: $$ L = \frac 12 m \dot z^2 - mgz$$ With dissipation function: $$ F=\frac 12 k \dot z^2 $$ The lagrangian formulation is now: $$ \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot z} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial z} + \frac{\partial F}{\partial \dot z} = 0 $$
So, I just don't know why they put the term $\frac{\partial F}{\partial \dot{z}}$ in Lagrange's equations. Why? I know that the Rayleigh dissipation function isn't a conservative force, but I don't know why the partial derivation. For holonomic constraints we need to partially derivate the function of constraint $f=0$ in order to $q$, the generalized coordinate: $\frac{\partial f}{\partial{q}}$. And we introduce it in Lagrange's equation multiplied by Lagrange's multiplier $\lambda$, on RHS.
But we have here some kind of constraint with a velocity $\dot{z}$ dependence. That's why we need to put the term $\frac{\partial F}{\partial \dot{z}}$ in Lagrange's equations? But the term isn't null and they didn't had the Lagrange multiplier, so is it true that it isn't relationated to the constraints formalism?