The related post was found here Lagrangian formalism application on a particle falling system with air resistance and also Wikipedia's definition on generalized force. Essential
$$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i}-\frac{\partial L }{\partial q_i}=Q_i.$$
The case concerned was to calculate/translate an arbitrary force into the original system of a Lagrangian.
Example:
Setting generalized coordinates to be $(m,r,\phi)$ $$L=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot r^2 +(r+R_E)^2\dot \phi^2 )+\frac{g_0R_E^2}{R_E+r}m$$ the equation of motion with respect to $r$ and $\phi$ were $$\frac{d}{dt} (m\dot r)= -\frac{g_0R_E^2}{(R_E+r)^2}m +m(r+R_E)\dot \phi^2 $$ $$\frac{d}{dt} (m(r+R_E)^2\dot\phi)= 0 $$
which, for $r$, was identified to be $$F_r= -\frac{g_0R_E^2}{(R_E+r)^2}m +m(r+R_E)\dot \phi^2$$
It's straight forward to see that, for an external force in $r$ direction $F_r^{ext}$, $$Q_r=F_r^{ext}$$
However, for $\phi$ direction it was much more complicated.
Through identification $$v_\phi=(r+R_E)\dot \phi,$$ without external force, $$\dot v_\phi=-\frac{\dot r v_\phi }{r+R_E}-\frac{\dot m}{m} v_\phi$$ or, equivalently, $$m\dot v_\phi+\dot m v_\phi=-\frac{\dot r v_\phi }{r+R_E} m$$ one thus identified $$F_\phi=-\frac{\dot r v_\phi }{r+R_E} m.$$
But if one wanted to write $Q_\phi$, then $$\frac{d}{dt} (m(r+R_E)^2\dot\phi)=\frac{d}{dt} (m(r+R_E)v_\phi)= Q_\phi. $$ Clearly, $$Q_\phi^{ext}=F_\phi^{ext}\cdot (r+R_E) \neq F_\phi^{ext}.$$
Why the generalized force in $\phi$ direction seemed so strange? Is there any other way to actually calculated $Q_\phi^\ext$ rather than making a blind identification? How to calculate/translate arbitrary external force into generalized force in Lagrangian such as resistance?