In the context of Noether's theorem , the Hamiltonian is the constant of motion associated with the time-translational invariance of the Lagrangian. Time-translational invariance is equivalent to the Lagrangian not depending explicitly on time that is $$\dfrac{∂L}{∂t}=0 .$$
The reason they're equivalent is that for an infinitesimal time translation, we can approximate the Lagrangian as the first order expansion of its Taylor series, that is
$$δL ≡ L(q, \dot{q},t +\epsilon ) − L(q, \dot{q},t)= \dfrac{∂L}{∂t}\epsilon $$ $$\text{the right one}$$
But Shouldn't $t \mapsto t+ \epsilon$ induce $q(t) \mapsto q(t+ \epsilon)$ and $\dot{q}(t) \mapsto \dot{q}(t+ \epsilon)$ ? and if that is the case then $$δL ≡ L( q(t+ \epsilon), \dot{q}(t+ \epsilon),t +\epsilon ) − L(q, \dot{q},t)= \dfrac{∂L}{∂t}\epsilon +\dfrac{∂L}{∂q}\epsilon+\dfrac{∂L}{∂ \dot{q}}\epsilon $$ $$\text{ the wrong one}$$
So that a Lagrangian is time transational invariant if and only if it does not explicitly depend on $q$,$\dot{q}$ and $t$ which does not make sense. So How is it possible to vary time without affect the coordinates or their derivatives which are themselves functions of time?