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It is possible to generate a single flying electron (S. Hermelin, et.al., "Electrons surfing on a sound wave as a platform for quantum optics with flying electrons", Nature, 21 Sept 2011, 477 (7365)).

What is the mechanism by which such a single electron moving in free space generates a magnetic field?

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    Can you clarify your question? This is taught in every first class in electromagnetism: moving charges make magnetic fields. Do you not believe that? Do you want a derivation of electromagnetism itself? Do you think a single electron would behave differently from a current? I'm sure we can answer whatever question you have, but it's unclear right now what it is. – knzhou Sep 30 '16 at 19:40
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    'Single flying electrons' have been around since the invention of the cathode ray tube. You can easily find a machine making them daily by finding the nearest transmission electron microscope. – Jon Custer Sep 30 '16 at 19:41
  • Just explain to me what the mechanism is by which a single electron, moving at a constant speed, generates a magnetic field. Textbooks tell you that this is observed experimentally, but how does this phenomenon occur? – John Petrovic Sep 30 '16 at 21:46
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    I'l by merging this with the original shortly, but I think I need to explain a basic policy. You don't re-ask a question merely because the original hasn't had a response. Especially not after such a short time. See the help center item on unanswered questions. – dmckee --- ex-moderator kitten Oct 02 '16 at 17:00

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It fundamentally is a relativistic effect. Do you accept that a stationary electron generates an electric field which can be measured? I'll assume it is okay and build upon that.

A stationary electron creates an electric field with $$\vec E(\vec x) \propto \frac{q}{|\vec x - \vec x_0|} (\vec x - \vec x_0) \,.$$ Let us choose $\vec x$ and $\vec x_0$ such that they only are along the $z$-axis. So say we are at the origin and the electron is at $\vec x_0 = (0, 0, 1)$. Then we would see some $E_z$ field component. Since the electron is at rest with respect to us, we don't see any magnetic field.

This electric field can also be written in terms of the field strength tensor. For this we use $E^i = F^{i0}$. So the tensor is roughly this $$ \mathsf F = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & E_z \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ -E_z & 0 & 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \,.$$ There can be an overall sign depending on where one puts the spacetime indices. It does not matter here as this is just a qualitative argument.

We now make a change of coordinate systems. We move along the $x$ axis and keep the electron as it is. It will appear that the electron moves relative to us now. The spacetime transformation will look like this $$ \mathsf \Lambda = \begin{pmatrix} \cosh \rho & \sinh \rho & 0 & 0 \\ \sinh \rho & \cosh \rho & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \,.$$

Performing the transformation which is roughly $\mathsf F \to \mathsf \Lambda \mathsf F \mathsf \Lambda$, we obtain a new field strength tensor which now looks like this: $$ \mathsf F' = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & E_z \cosh \rho \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & E_z \sinh \rho \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ -E_z \cosh \rho & -E_z \sinh \rho & 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \,.$$

The new elements there correspond to the $B_y$ components. So there is now a magnetic field in the $y$ direction.

If you want to ask how the electric field is produced, it will probably not shed that much light by looking into QED. I would think that there is no really more fundamental explanation for the electric field.

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    Thank you for this answer. So your answer basically says that there is no such thing as a magnetic field. What is called the magnetic field is simply the components of the electric field that are resolved in the observer's frame of reference. Is that correct? – John Petrovic Oct 02 '16 at 14:45
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    Yes, that is how I would interpret magnetism. Common magnets (which may be at rest) have a static magnetic field because of the spins that each particle making it up has. The spin is a relativistic quantum effect and is also inherently tied to (special) relativity. – Martin Ueding Oct 02 '16 at 14:55
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At some level, physics can't explain anything. It can only describe how nature works. We can "explain" things if you are willing to accept some set of axioms that remain unexplained, and then reason logically from those axioms. But since the axioms themselves are unexplained ... have you really managed to explain anything?

If you can tell us what you are willing to accept, we might be able to give you an "explanation". For example, are you willing to accept that EM fields can be represented by vectors, and that Maxwell's equations are valid? If so, we can help.

garyp
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There are several levels of explanation to most physics questions.

One level is: Any electric current generates a magnetic field. A moving electron is a (very small) electric current. If you take a zillion electrons moving along a wire (you don't really need the wire), then you have a magnetic field as you can confirm by experiment. Each electron contributes a zillionth of the total magnetic field. If you take away a zillion minus 1 electrons from the system, you are left with the zillionth-size magnetic field.

Another level: If you have an electric field in a certain frame of reference, then in another frame of reference you have a magnetic field (and vice versa). This is due to the way an electromagnetic field transforms in Relativity. The electron doesn't know that it is moving, and in its frame it just has a pure electric field without any magnetism. You, however, are in a different frame from the electron, and so you see a magnetic field.

Another level: It is perfectly valid to go into the electron's frame and calculate what happens when your experimental apparatus, moving at high speed past the electron, encounters the electron's pure electric field. The results of that calculation will agree with what you calculate when you treat the apparatus as stationary and interacting with the moving electron's electric + magnetic field. However, one way of doing the calculations is quite a bit easier than the other, and laziness is a virtue.

DMPalmer
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  • Let me put my question another way: What is the mechanism by which a single electron, moving at a constant speed relative to an observer, produces a magnetic field observed by the observer? – John Petrovic Sep 30 '16 at 23:16
  • @JohnPetrovic Please take in account that every electron has a magnetic dipole moment. During any acceleration the electrons intrinsic spin gets aligned due to gyroscopic effect and by this the related in direction with it magnetic dipole moment gets aligned too. And take in account that every measurement of a magnetic field will align the electrons magnetic dipole moment too. See About the internal cause of Lorentz force ... – HolgerFiedler Oct 01 '16 at 07:16
  • My single electron is not under any acceleration, just moving at a constant speed relative to an observer, so this would not apply. With regard to the measurement of the magnetic field, are you saying that the act of measurement creates the magnetic field, so that if there is no measurement then there is no magnetic field associated with the moving electron? – John Petrovic Oct 01 '16 at 13:36
  • @Petrovic The measurement does not create a magnetic field because it is always there, it is an permanent (intrinsic) property of electrons. Usually this moments are equally distributed in space and induction (even from a measurement instrument) means that this moments get aligned. [please if you answer write "at"name ;-) – HolgerFiedler Oct 03 '16 at 19:01
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The answer depends on your starting point for what you consider to be unnecessary to explain. For example, if you think it is unnecessary to explain why a stationary electric charge produces a static electric field that acts like straight lines emanating from the electron, and if you think the rules of how 4-vectors transform when you change reference frames need no explanation, then you can say that the magnetic field is the natural consequence of taking a static electric field and observing it from a moving frame of reference. This allows the electric field to be placed into the larger context of the electromagnetic tensor (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_tensor), whereby we can regard both electric and magnetic fields in a unified way in which they both stem from a 4-potential. That's similar to how relativity allows us to view space and time as part of a unified 4-dimensional spacetime. So if we answer your question this way, we say it needs to produce a magnetic field such that what you already understand about electric fields can be placed into the broader context of how the universe behaves when you change reference frames. That relativity is needed is evidenced by the fact that $c$ appears whenever you start talking about the $B$ field of a moving charge.

Ken G
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