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Lorentz force is not experienced when the current flows parallel to the magnetic field. Now, can someone explain me the reason to this? I can't understand this.

Mathejunior
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    Physics describes nature. For the reason why, you'll have to ask the creator of nature. I don't think he or she subscribes to this forum. – garyp Jan 08 '17 at 13:18
  • This question is answered in this post - http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/29133/37364. – mmesser314 Jan 08 '17 at 13:24

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A current is simply moving (with velocity $v$) electrons (with charge $q$), so we apply the following equation for the lorentz force: $$\vec{F}=q \vec{E}+q \vec{v} \times \vec{B}.$$

In the absence of an electric field, we thus have $$\vec{F}=q \vec{v} \times \vec{B}.$$

For two parallel vectors, $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{B}$, the cross product vanishes, so $F=0$.

Carucel
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