In the derivation of F=ma, when we reach the point F=kma, we take k=1. Why can't we take 'k' as some other value?
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6Possible duplicate of How do we know that $F = ma$, not $F = k \cdot ma$ – John Rennie Feb 03 '18 at 09:10
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We make use of S.I. units. The statement $F=ma$ defines the newton (N) as the force required to accelerate a mass of $1kg$ by $1ms^{-2}$ in the direction of the force. This means that $k=1$.
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