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When we write the Lagrangian $\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{x}^2-U(x)$, where $U$ is the potential energy, we are assuming that the mass $m$ is constant, the only variables being the velocity $\dot{x}$ and position $x$. What can be done to determine the equation of motion of the particle in case the mass is changing?

I know that we cannot simply use the formula $$\dot{p}=m\ddot{x}+\dot{m}\dot{x},$$ with $p=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x}}$, because it isn't Galilean invariant and the system is not closed, so some other procedure must be used.

Perhaps the method of Lagrange multipliers may be used? Or via a non-standard Lagrangian that somehow reproduces the equation of motion given here?

Don Al
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4 Answers4

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If you just give the mass an explicit time-dependence, $$L = \frac12 m(t) \dot{x}^2 - U(x)$$ then the Euler-Lagrange equation is $$\frac{d}{dt} (m \dot{x}) = \dot{m} \dot{x} + \dot{m} \ddot{x} = - \frac{dU}{dx}.$$ It's unclear to me why you think "we simply cannot use" this result. It isn't Galilean invariant, but once you let $m(t)$ have arbitrary time-dependence, the action isn't Galilean invariant either.

knzhou
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  • It is because of this answer that I saw https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/53980/ – Don Al Feb 16 '20 at 01:51
  • @DonAl It depends on what one means by a "variable mass" system. If you mean a system that can exchange mass with an environment, then the caveats there apply. But if you just mean some isolated system with a mass term in the Lagrangian which can change explicitly with time (as in your question), it's much simpler and what I said applies. – knzhou Feb 16 '20 at 01:54
  • Note, however, that this technique does not reproduce the rocket equation that was linked to by the OP. – Michael Seifert Feb 16 '20 at 12:34
  • When in classical mechanics you obtain a result which is not Galilean invariant, you obtain a result which is simply wrong. – Massimo Ortolano Mar 21 '21 at 18:23
  • @DonAl Could you clarify a bit if you were asking about "particle" particle or were you asking some giant classical object like rocket or aircraft? Because the physical treatment between those systems were completely different. $\dot{m}$ and $\dot{x}$ etc. had completely different meanings. – ShoutOutAndCalculate Mar 27 '21 at 19:52
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updated response

The clearest discussion I have found for the Lagrangian for a variable mass system is the following reference (you must pay for access): https://aapt.scitation.org/doi/full/10.1119/10.0000304

Based on this reference, for a one dimensional system with variable mass (e.g., a rocket or a falling chain), the Lagrangian approach results in ${d \over dt}({{\partial T} \over {\partial \dot x}}) - {{\partial T} \over {\partial x}} = F + M$, where T is the kinetic energy, $T = {1 \over 2}m(t)\dot x^2$, $F$ is the net external force, and $M$ is the momentum flux term for variable mass systems. $M = \dot m u - {1 \over 2}{{\partial m} \over {\partial x}}v^2$. (There is an additional term if the mass is velocity dependent, not included here. For more details see http://www.scielo.br/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S1678-58782006000400015) $u$ is the velocity in the inertial frame of the changing mass, and $v$ is the velocity of the mass in the inertial frame.

Using this relationship you can derive the rocket equation of motion $m\dddot x = \dot mc + F$, where $c$ is the velocity of the ejected mass relative to the rocket:$\enspace c = u - \dot x$. See https://arc.aiaa.org/doi/abs/10.2514/3.1626. For the rocket case, $M = \dot m u $; the second term in $M$ is zero.

John Darby
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I propose the following form for the Lagragian with varying mass:

$$ L(\dot{x},x;t) = \frac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 - V(x) - \frac{1}{2} \Delta m \left( \dot{x} - u \right)^2=L_0 - \frac{1}{2} \Delta m \left( \dot{x} - u \right)^2, $$ Where $\Delta m = \frac{dm}{dt} \Delta t$ is the mass change between $t$ and $t+\Delta t$ (negative for rocket problem), and $u$ an extra parameter for the ejection speed. The second term is to make up the kinetic energy loss in the varying mass problem.

The corresponding action integral: $$ S = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} L_0(\dot{x}, x; t) dt - \frac{1}{2} \int_{t_1}^{t_2} \Delta m \left( \dot{x} - u \right)^2 dt $$

Then, we can go throught the variation for Euler-Lagrangian Equation. The first term render the same Euler-Lagrangin eqaution as usual. An addtional term from the second part of action integral using integral by parts: $$ -\delta \frac{1}{2} \int_{t_1}^{t_2} \Delta m \left( \dot{x} - u \right)^2 dt =-\int_{t_1}^{t_2} \Delta m \left( \dot{x} - u \right) \delta \dot{x} dt $$ $$ =+\int_{t_1}^{t_2} \frac{dm}{dt} \frac{\Delta t}{\Delta t} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) \delta x dt =\int_{t_1}^{t_2} \frac{dm}{dt} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) \delta x dt $$ Since the $\Delta t$ is already the first order infinitesmal quantity, the variation are not applying to other terms in the integrand (they will vanish in the limit $\Delta t \to 0$. Thus, the modified Euler-Lagrangian equation: $$ \frac{\partial L_0}{\partial x} - \frac{d}{dt} \left\{ \frac{\partial L_0}{\partial \dot{x}}\right\} + \frac{dm}{dt} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) = 0 $$

Appy to the rocket problem with constant gravity:

$$ L_0 = \frac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 - mgx $$

The Equation of motion: $$ \frac{\partial L_0}{\partial x} - \frac{d}{dt} \left\{ \frac{\partial L_0}{\partial \dot{x}}\right\} + \frac{dm}{dt} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) = -mg - \frac{d}{dt} m\dot{x} - \frac{dm}{dt} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) $$ $$ = -mg - m\ddot{x} - \dot{m}\dot{v} + \dot{m} \left( \dot{x} - u \right) = 0 $$ $$ m \dot{v} = | \dot{m}| u - m g. $$

Another example, throw $dm/dt$ mass rate vertically outside a boat, $u=0$:

$$ m \dot{v} = 0. $$

The masses casted outside is moving with same $v$, therefore doesn't change the momentum of the remaining boat (neglecting the vertical shift within our 1-d treatment.)

ytlu
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    One of the example I did couple of week's ago: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/619272/how-to-calculate-generalized-force-q-phi-with-dalemberts-principle with rocket where fuel was being ejected and the rocket's mass was changing. I had similar confusion, eventually, it's easiest to change the picture back to Newton. At each instance, the total change of momentum on the system could be calculated in the form of lagrangian, and then the fuel's effect to the remaining object was simply an additive external term. – ShoutOutAndCalculate Mar 27 '21 at 19:46
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    There the effective velocity was not the same as the fuel's velocity, and also the effective velocity with respect to rocket was assumed to be fixed. Thus it didn't work well with generalized coordinates. – ShoutOutAndCalculate Mar 27 '21 at 19:47
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Im my previous naswer, I included a terms of order $dt$ in the Lagrangian. It makes the variation somewhat awkward. After some thoughts, I find it is rather nature to employ the dissipation function and incorporated as a generalized force Rayleigh Dissipation.

The dissipation function is basically the power dissipated by the friction force. In this case, the mass ejected is taking away a part of the knietic energy from the system in a similar way of dissipation force.

$$ G(v) = \frac{1}{2} \frac{dm}{dt} (\dot{x}-u)^2 $$ The mass changing rate $\dot{m} =\frac{dm}{dt}$ is negative for rocket motion.

The generalized force $$ Q = \frac{\partial G}{\partial \dot{x}} = \frac{dm}{dt} (\dot{x}-u) $$

The Euler-Lagrangian equation with generalized force:

$$ \frac{d}{dt} \left\{ \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}}\right\} -\frac{\partial L}{\partial x} = Q $$

Appy to the rocket problem with constant gravity:

$$ L = \frac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 - mgx $$

The Equation of motion: $$ \frac{d}{dt} \left\{ \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}}\right\} -\frac{\partial L}{\partial x} = \frac{d m\dot{x}}{dt} + mg = Q $$ $$ m\ddot{x} + \dot{m}\dot{x} + mg = \dot{m} (\dot{x} - u) $$

Render the correct rocket equation of motion. $$ m \dot{v} = -\dot{m} u - m g = |\dot{m}| u - m g. $$

Another example, throw $dm/dt$ mass rate vertically outside a boat, $u=0$:

$$ m \dot{v} = 0 \to v(t) = \text{constant} $$

The masses casted outside is moving with same $v$, therefore doesn't change the velocity of the remaining boat (neglecting the vertical shift within our 1-d treatment.)

ytlu
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