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In Euclidean space is the space of classical Mechanics,

A scalar is the same for all observers that are to say remain invariant under the change of coordinate systems.

A Vector $\mathbf{V}$ is a collection of three numbers which transform as the components of a vector in $\mathcal{V}^3(R)$:

$$V_i\rightarrow V'_i=\sum_j R_{ij}V_j$$ where $R$ is the usual $3\times 3$ rotation matrix.

In Minkowski space,

$$\eta =\Lambda^T\eta \Lambda$$ where $\eta$ Minkowski metric. The above describes the transformation $\Lambda$ between the two frames of reference.

$$dx_\mu\rightarrow dx'_\mu=\Lambda^\sigma_\mu dx_\sigma$$


The four coordinate or four-momentum vector follows these transformations.

The mass of the particle transforms from one coordinate to another. But not there aren't any four-vectors associated with it Like with energy. So Is there any four-vector I can associate with this transformation? Or maybe we can write it as a scalar product but the scalar product remains invariant.

Qmechanic
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    Mass is one of the Casimirs of ISO(d-1,1) – nwolijin May 05 '21 at 14:44
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    The mass of a particle is related to the square of the four momentum $m^2 = p^\mu p_\mu$ which makes it clear that $m$ is Lorentz invariant. – Prahar May 06 '21 at 10:01
  • @Prahar Mitra : But the 4-momentum $,p_{\mu},$ is defined in dependence to the a priori considered invariant rest mass $,m_{\rm o}$, see equation \eqref{08a} in my answer. So I don't think that this is a proof, unless there exists a different definition of $,p_{\mu},$ independent of the rest mass $,m_{\rm o},$ which I miss. But then from this different definition must be proved first that $,p_{\mu},$ is a Lorentz 4-vector in order for your proof to be valid. – Frobenius May 06 '21 at 13:02
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    @Frobenius - I suppose it depends on how one defines the 4-vector $p^\mu$. The definition that one is presented with when starting to learn special relativity does involve $m_0$ in which case my argument would be circular and since this is the context that is relevant to OP, I'll have to agree with you. – Prahar May 06 '21 at 13:06

2 Answers2

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The mass of the particle transforms from one coordinate to another.

You make reference to the old notion of the relativistic mass \begin{equation} m\boldsymbol{=}\dfrac{m_{\rm o}}{\sqrt{1\boldsymbol{-}\dfrac{v^2}{c^2}}}\boldsymbol{=}\gamma_v\,m_{\rm o} \tag{01}\label{01} \end{equation} where $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ the rest mass. The relativistic mass $\,m\,$ is a source of confusion and it's not in use in contemporary Physics.

The rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ is a Lorentz invariant scalar.

What about the other quantity like force? Is there any four-vector for them? Is it, in general, I can find four-vector for euclidian vectors in Minkowski space?

From a rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ preserving 3-vector force $\,\mathbf f\,$ (like the Lorentz force of Electrodynamics) applied on a particle moving with 3-velocity $\,\mathbf u\,$ we produce a Lorentz 4-vector force $\,\mathbf F\,$ as follows \begin{equation} \mathbf F\boldsymbol{=}\left(\gamma_{\mathrm u}\mathbf{f}, \gamma_{\mathrm u}\dfrac{\mathbf{f}\boldsymbol{\cdot}\mathbf{u}}{c}\right)\,, \qquad \gamma_{\mathrm u}\boldsymbol{=}\left(1\boldsymbol{-}\dfrac{\mathrm u^2}{c^2}\right)^{\boldsymbol{-}\tfrac{1}{2}} \tag{02}\label{02} \end{equation} Under a Lorentz boost with velocity $\,\boldsymbol{\upsilon}\,$ the rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ preserving 3-vector force $\,\mathbf f\,$ is transformed as follows \begin{equation} \mathbf f' = \dfrac{\mathbf f\boldsymbol{+}\dfrac{\gamma_v^2}{c^2 \left(\gamma_v\boldsymbol{+}1\right)}\left(\mathbf f\boldsymbol{\cdot} \boldsymbol{\upsilon}\right)\boldsymbol{\upsilon}-\gamma_v \boldsymbol{\upsilon}\left(\dfrac{\mathbf f\boldsymbol{\cdot}\mathbf u}{c^{2}}\right)}{\gamma_v \left(1-\dfrac{\boldsymbol{\upsilon}\boldsymbol{\cdot}\mathbf{u}}{c^{2}}\right)} \tag{03}\label{03} \end{equation}

Some details in my answer here Are magnetic fields just modified relativistic electric fields? would be useful.\

Not all 3-vectors, say $\,\mathbf h\,$, have a Lorentz 4-vector partner. But if so then you must $''$discover$''$ two scalars $\,\rm a_{\rm h},b_{\rm h}\,$ so that to build the Lorentz 4-vector \begin{equation} \mathbf H\boldsymbol{=}\left(\rm a_{\rm h}\,\mathbf h, \rm b_{\rm h}\right) \tag{04}\label{04} \end{equation} For example in case of the rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ preserving 3-vector force $\,\mathbf f\,$ in equation \eqref{02} \begin{equation} \mathrm a_{\rm f}\boldsymbol{=}\gamma_{\mathrm u}\,,\qquad b_{\rm f}\boldsymbol{=}\gamma_{\mathrm u}\dfrac{\mathbf f\boldsymbol{\cdot}\mathbf u}{c} \tag{05}\label{05} \end{equation}

An easy and safe method to build new Lorentz 4-vectors is to take a Lorentz invariant scalar multiple of a known Lorentz 4-vector. By this method we build the Lorentz 4-vectors :

$\boldsymbol{\S\,1.} \texttt{ The Velocity 4-vector } \mathbf U$

The velocity 4-vector $\,\mathbf U\,$ is built by differentiation of the space-time position Lorentz 4-vector $\,\mathbf X\boldsymbol{=}\left(\mathbf x, c\,t\right)\,$ with respect to the Lorentz invariant scalar proper time $\,\tau$. Note that these properties follow the differentials $\,\mathrm d\mathbf X\,$ and $\,\mathrm d\tau\,$ respectively. \begin{equation} \!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\mathbf U\boldsymbol{=}\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf X}{\mathrm d\tau}\boldsymbol{=}\left(\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf x}{\mathrm d\tau}, c\dfrac{\mathrm d t}{\mathrm d\tau}\right)\boldsymbol{=}\left(\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf x}{\mathrm dt}\dfrac{\mathrm d t}{\mathrm d\tau}, c\dfrac{\mathrm d t}{\mathrm d\tau}\right)\boldsymbol{=}\left( \gamma_{\mathrm u}\,\mathbf u, \gamma_{\mathrm u}\, c\right)\,, \:\: \gamma_{\mathrm u}\boldsymbol{=}\left(1\boldsymbol{-}\dfrac{\mathrm u^2}{c^2}\right)^{\boldsymbol{-}\tfrac{1}{2}} \tag{06}\label{06} \end{equation} Under a Lorentz boost with velocity $\,\boldsymbol{\upsilon}\,$ the velocity 3-vector $\,\mathbf u\,$ is transformed as follows \begin{equation} \mathbf u' = \dfrac{\mathbf u\boldsymbol{+}\dfrac{\gamma_v^2}{c^2 \left(\gamma_v\boldsymbol{+}1\right)}\left(\mathbf u\boldsymbol{\cdot} \boldsymbol{\upsilon}\right)\boldsymbol{\upsilon}-\gamma_v \boldsymbol{\upsilon}}{\gamma_v \left(1-\dfrac{\boldsymbol{\upsilon}\boldsymbol{\cdot}\mathbf{u}}{c^{2}}\right)} \tag{07}\label{07} \end{equation}

$\boldsymbol{\S\,2.} \texttt{ The Linear Momentum 4-vector } \mathbf P$

The linear momentum 4-vector $\,\mathbf P\,$ is built as the Lorentz invariant rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ scalar multiple of the velocity Lorentz 4-vector $\,\mathbf U$. \begin{equation} \mathbf P\boldsymbol{=}m_{\rm o}\,\mathbf U\boldsymbol{=}\left( \gamma_{\mathrm u}\,m_{\rm o}\,\mathbf u, \gamma_{\mathrm u}\,m_{\rm o}\, c\right)\boldsymbol{=} \left( \mathbf p, \rm E/c\right) \tag{08a}\label{08a} \end{equation} where \begin{align} \mathbf p & \boldsymbol{=}\gamma_{\mathrm u}\,m_{\rm o}\,\mathbf u\boldsymbol{=}\texttt{the linear momentum 3-vector} \tag{08b}\label{08b}\\ \mathrm E & \boldsymbol{=}\gamma_{\mathrm u}\,m_{\rm o}\,c^2\boldsymbol{=}\texttt{ energy of the particle} \tag{08c}\label{08c} \end{align}

$\boldsymbol{\S\,3.} \texttt{ The Acceleration 4-vector } \mathbf A$

The acceleration 4-vector $\,\mathbf A\,$ is built by differentiation of velocity 4-vector $\,\mathbf U\,$ with respect to the Lorentz invariant scalar proper time $\,\tau$. \begin{equation} \mathbf A\boldsymbol{=}\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf U}{\mathrm d\tau} \tag{09}\label{09} \end{equation}

$\boldsymbol{\S\,4.} \texttt{ The Force 4-vector } \mathbf F$

For a rest mass $\,m_{\rm o}\,$ preserving 3-vector force $\,\mathbf f\,$ the force 4-vector $\,\mathbf F\,$ is built by differentiation of Linear Momentum 4-vector $\,\mathbf P\,$ with respect to the Lorentz invariant scalar proper time $\,\tau$. \begin{equation} \mathbf F\boldsymbol{=}\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf P}{\mathrm d\tau}\boldsymbol{=}\dfrac{\mathrm d\left(m_{\rm o}\,\mathbf U\right)}{\mathrm d\tau}\boldsymbol{=}m_{\rm o}\,\dfrac{\mathrm d\mathbf U}{\mathrm d\tau}\boldsymbol{=}m_{\rm o}\,\mathbf A \tag{10}\label{10} \end{equation}

Zo the Relativist
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Frobenius
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    Can the community start phasing out the term "relativistic mass"? Is it even in use these days?, I have the feeling there is always such questions again and again. The term in use in the literature are essentially mass (meaning always rest mass) and perhaps effective mass in the context of modified dispersion in mediums. – ohneVal May 06 '21 at 08:29
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    @ohneVal : ...The relativistic mass m is a source of confusion and it's not in use in modern Physics. – Frobenius May 06 '21 at 08:38
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    Yes that is why I upvoted this, I support your cause bro, haha, this is not addressed to you but the community. – ohneVal May 06 '21 at 09:07
  • @ohneVal : I disagree with you. I think that the community suggests in many places what I mention in my answer and previous comment. – Frobenius May 06 '21 at 09:14
  • I agree that relativistic mass is largely an outdated concept, but as a fun example of where it still crops up in a useful context, see relativistic self-focusing in plasmas. The plasma frequency is inversely proportional to the square root of the electron mass; for intense laser pulses which induce high electron temperatures, replacing $m$ with $\gamma m$ provides the right relativistic correction which then leads to a nonlinearly self-focusing beam. – J. Murray May 06 '21 at 14:29
  • @ohneVal: the problem is that it's used in sources like Einstein's popular level "Relativity" book, and people aren't going to stop reading that (though one could wish that editors would start leaving notes about stuff like this in the older popular level books) – Zo the Relativist May 06 '21 at 15:30
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    @Jerry Schirmer : Thanks for editing and comment. – Frobenius May 06 '21 at 16:22
  • @J. Murray : Thanks for your attention. – Frobenius May 06 '21 at 16:23
  • Also here there are many mistakes with $\boldsymbol$. – Sebastiano May 12 '21 at 22:13
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Mass, from the perspective of $\vec{F}=\tilde{m}\vec{a}$, is a tensor quantity. If an object was observed to be moving in the $\vec{x}$ direction, the mass tensor would be $$\tilde{m}=\gamma\ m_0\left[\begin{matrix}\gamma^2&0&0\\0&1&0\\0&0&1\\\end{matrix}\right]$$ where $m_0$ is the Lorentz invariant rest mass(which is a scalar). Mass in this tensor form isn't used nowadays as it tends to complicate things unnecessarily. As such, rest mass is used instead. Neither definition is wrong, it's just that Lorentz invariant scalars are easier to work with.

Laff70
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