A projective unitary representation of ${\rm SO(3)}$ satisfies $$U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi(R_1,R_2)}U(R_1R_2)\tag{1}$$ where $R_1,R_2\in {\rm SO(3)}$. How to show that the $j=1/2$ representation, $U(R(\theta,\hat{\bf n}))=e^{i{\sigma}\cdot{\hat {\bf n}}\theta/2}$, is a projective representation of ${\rm SO}(3)$ i.e., satisfies the condition $(1)$. To do this, one has to show that for $$R_1R_2=R_3\Rightarrow U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi}U(R_3).\tag{3}$$ Any suggestions how to show this or at least check this?
2 Answers
OP describes projective representations in terms of a 2-cocycle, see section 3 below. An alternative description is in terms of a quotient $$PSU(2)~:=~ SU(2)/\mathbb{Z}_2~\cong~SO(3),\tag{A}$$ where $SU(2)$ denotes the 2-dimension $j=1/2$ non-projective defining/fundamental/spinor representation and $$\mathbb{Z}_{2}~\cong~\{\pm {\bf 1}_{2 \times 2}\}.\tag{B}$$ In other words, in this latter description the 2-dimensional representation of $SO(3)$ is double-valued, i.e. there are 2 branches $\pm U$ represents the same $SO(3)$ rotation.
Let $\vec{\alpha}=\theta\hat{\bf n}$ be a rotation-vector in the axis-angle representation $(\hat{\bf n},\theta)$. The opposite branch is given by the axis-angle representation $(-\hat{\bf n},2\pi\!-\!\theta)$. To describe a general $SO(3)$-element ($SU(2)$-element) it is enough to consider a rotation-vector $\vec{\alpha}\in \mathbb{R}^3$ with length $|\vec{\alpha}|\leq \pi$ ($|\vec{\alpha}|\leq 2\pi$), respectively. Note that the $4\pi$-periodicity of $SU(2)$ becomes the familiar $2\pi$-periodicity of $SO(3)$. See also e.g. this & this related Phys.SE posts.
From the non-projective defining representation of $SU(2)$, we have $$U(\vec{\gamma})~=~U(\vec{\alpha})U(\vec{\beta}) ,\tag{C}$$ cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post. As mentioned before, we may assume that $|\vec{\alpha}|,|\vec{\beta}|,|\vec{\gamma}| \leq 2\pi$. However, if we only want to use rotation-vectors with lengths $\leq \pi$ (corresponding to $SO(3)$-rotations), we might have to use the opposite branch. Such a transition costs a non-trivial 2-cofactor in eq. (C).
References:
- G 't Hooft, Introduction to Lie Groups in Physics, lecture notes; chapters 3 + 6. The pdf file is available here.

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The definition I used is the one given in Weinberg's QFT. But with this definition, I have a difficulty seeing which $U$ matrix satisfies a relation of the form $U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi}U(R_1 R_2)$. Maybe I am confused by the notation, here. @Qmechanic – SRS May 31 '21 at 14:04
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Yes, Weinberg uses a 2-cocycle. – Qmechanic May 31 '21 at 14:37
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Can you please tell how the notation $U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi}U(R_1R_2)$ makes sense? For which $U$ matrices this relation is true? @Qmechanic – SRS May 31 '21 at 14:40
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@SRS You cannot find SU(2) matrices for which this holds, else it would not be representation of SU(2). – ZeroTheHero May 31 '21 at 17:45
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You are probably right. But I am confused by the notation of Weinberg : $U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi(R_1,R_2)}U(R_1R_2)$. What is $U$ here? @ZeroTheHero – SRS May 31 '21 at 18:07
Take $\hat{\bf{n}}_1=\hat{\bf{n}}_2$, and $\theta_1+\theta_2=2\pi$. As an $SO(3)$ element, you should have $U(R_1)U(R_2)=U(2\pi)=1$ but here you get $-1$.
Thus, you get $U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi}1$, where $e^{i\phi}=-1$ (or $\phi=\pi$)

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Where is the phase $e^{i\phi}$? We should get $U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i\phi}U(R_1R_2)$. Right? – SRS May 31 '21 at 12:20
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You took $R_1=R(\theta_1,\hat{\bf n}_1)$ and $R_2=R(\theta_2,\hat{\bf n}_2)$. With $\hat{\bf n}_1=\hat{\bf n}_2=\hat{\bf n}$, and $\theta_1=2\pi-\theta_2=\theta$, $$R_1R_2=R(\hat{\bf n},\theta)R(\hat{\bf n},2\pi-\theta)=R(\hat{\bf n},2\pi)=1.$$ Now, $$U(R_1)U(R_2)=e^{i{\sigma}\cdot{\hat {\bf n}}\theta/2}e^{i{\sigma}\cdot{\hat {\bf n}}(2\pi-\theta)/2}=e^{i{\sigma}\cdot{\hat {\bf n}}\pi}=-1$$ and $$U(R_3)=U(R(\hat{\bf n},2\pi))=e^{i{\sigma}\cdot{\hat {\bf n}}\pi}=-1$$ which says $U(R_1)U(R_2)=U(R_3)$. So I dot yet get this. Any error? @ZeroTheHero – SRS May 31 '21 at 12:55
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As elements of SO(3), $R(\theta_1)R(\theta_2)=R(2\pi)=1$, Here, you have (as elements of SU(2)) $R(\theta_1)R(\theta_2)=(-1)R(2\pi)=-1$. Thus, as elements of SU2, the product is "almost" the same as the product of SO(3) elements provided you allow multiplication by a phase. – ZeroTheHero May 31 '21 at 13:19
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Thanks! But I'm afraid I don't get it. If I try to express in the form of Eq.$(1)$, all I find that $U(\theta)U(2\pi-\theta)=e^{i\phi}(-1)=e^{i\phi}U(2\pi)$ with $\phi=0$. – SRS May 31 '21 at 13:28
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1Of course in SU(2) the product is just $U(R_1)U(R_2)=U(R_1R_2)$ else it would not be a representation of SU(2). It is when you make an interpretation of this product as product of SO(3) elements that the phase appears (in the sense that $\theta$ labels an element in SO(3)). That's why you have a projective representation of SO(3) (not of SU(2)). There are no irreducible representations of SO(3) of dimension 2 so it cannot be that $e^{-i\theta\sigma_z/2}$ is in SO(3), yet the SU(2) elements combine "almost" as SO(3) elements. – ZeroTheHero May 31 '21 at 13:31