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As stated in the title, two identical balls, both thrown directly upward, but at different speeds. The slower ball will reverse direction at a lower height than the faster ball. But the curvature of spacetime that they are passing through would be nearly identical.

How do geodesics explain these two paths?

Another way of looking at the same issue: Two identical balls dropped, but from different heights. Both balls travel straight down but hit the ground at different velocities. Each ball should be passing through the same spacetime curvature at the point of impact. Since neither ball experienced a force or acceleration and their motion is purely a product of the curvature of spacetime, why are they traveling a different speeds at impact?

  • On a flat surface, two roads can cross each other and still both be straight --- as long as they have different endpoints. Similarly in spacetime, where the paths of the two balls might have a startiing point in common, but have different endpoints. There's no reason they can't both be geodesics. (A straight road is determined by a starting point and a direction. Likewise, your paths start at the same event and proceed along geodesics in different spacetime directions.) – WillO Aug 10 '21 at 01:06
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    A helpful tip (from my experience resolving these "paradoxes") is to never forget that time is also a dimension, and that an object's spacetime velocity (which is always locally $c$) comprises both spatial velocity and temporal velocity. – Vincent Thacker Aug 10 '21 at 02:52
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    Closely related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/586835/123208 – PM 2Ring Aug 10 '21 at 10:21

4 Answers4

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Two worldlines starting at the same event in spacetime but having different velocities are going in different “directions” in spacetime, even if they are going in the same direction in space. So their geodesics are different.

Remember, most worldlines here on Earth are nearly parallel, since they travel at very small fractions of c relative to each other. So the extent in the time domain is much larger than in the spatial domains.

For a sense of scale, consider a baseball pitch. It travels about 18 m in about 0.5 s, for a velocity around 37 m/s which is 1.2 e-7 c. During the flight it travels 18 m in space and 1.5 e8 m in time. This means there is a spacetime "angle" of about 1.2 E-7 radians between the earth and the baseball, which is "nearly parallel". Now, if we consider the height, a baseball goes up about 0.3 m during the flight. If we approximate that as a spacetime circular segment with a chord length of 1.5 e8 m and a height of 0.3 m, then we find a radius of curvature of 9.4 e15 m, which compares closely with c^2/g of 9.2 e15 m (the discrepancy being due to the approximation as a circle). So, because the baseball pitch is so long in time, the small difference in direction in spacetime can lead to the observed difference in the Newtonian path.

Dale
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  • Does the statement that world lines here are earth are nearly parallel undermine the statement that they are taking different "directions" in spacetime? I get the paths aren't exactly the same, but is that different enough to account for the difference we see? – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 02:01
  • @HardlyCurious Certainly, because $c$ is a large number. – Vincent Thacker Aug 10 '21 at 02:54
  • @HardlyCurious Yes, only small differences are needed. Think about a baseball pitch. It goes about 60 ft in space but about 500,000,000 ft in time. So the “direction” only differs by 1.2 E-7 radians. – Dale Aug 10 '21 at 03:09
  • @VincentThacker I am increasingly suspicious of "c is a large number" arguments. c is not a large number when it is 1, the actual speeds are just very small ;) Also, on a galactic scale, light is pretty much stationary! I know that you know this BTW, I am just ranting ;) – m4r35n357 Aug 10 '21 at 09:56
  • @m4r35n357 it is a valid response when someone asks about the size of a relativistic effect. What they mean is “on ordinary scales this seems like a big result, how can a small relativistic effect produce a large ordinary-scale result”. And “c is large” describes exactly that. In SI units c being large means that small relativistic effects produce large results on ordinary scales. Natural units would focus on the fact that the ordinary-scale is small relativistically. – Dale Aug 10 '21 at 11:25
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    @Dale I know what you mean, and I think you know what I mean. The only problem is that one minute you tell people that light is really fast (when you talk about $E = mc^2$ etc), then you have to say it is really slow when you talk about interplanetary travel. Some people get edgy when they see that sort of thing ;) That would be a pedagogical matter (according to Father Jack). – m4r35n357 Aug 10 '21 at 11:51
  • @Dale It seems odd to me to talk about the magnitude of relativistic effects in a hypothetical situation where GR essentially resolves down to Newtonian mechanics. – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 12:18
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    @HardlyCurious in this case "relativistic effect" means the way relativity explains something rather than something that cannot be explained by Newtonian physics. Since the question asked about the relativistic explanation of a Newtonian scenario, such features are unavoidable. – Dale Aug 10 '21 at 12:37
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You have already got some good answers. But I would like to add some more concrete and visual explanations for convincing you. This can be done with Newtonian mechanics and elementary geometry only, but without the advanced mathematics usually used in general relativity.

Here is a table with some trajectories of balls thrown up with velocity $v$, reaching maximum height $h$, and total time of flight $T$. Using Newtonian mechanics (with $g=10\text{ m/s}^2$) we have $$h=\frac{v^2}{2g} \tag{1}$$ and $$T=\frac{2v}{g} \tag{2}.$$

\begin{array}{c|c|c|c|c} v & h & T & cT & R \\ \hline 1\text{ m/s} & 0.05\text{ m} & 0.2\text{ s} & 6\cdot 10^7\text{ m} & 9\cdot 10^{15}\text{ m} \\ \hline 10\text{ m/s} & 5\text{ m} & 2\text{ s} & 6\cdot 10^8\text{ m} & 9\cdot 10^{15}\text{ m} \\ \hline 100\text{ m/s} & 500\text{ m} & 20\text{ s} & 6\cdot 10^9\text{ m} & 9\cdot 10^{15}\text{ m} \\ \hline \end{array}

We need to analyze the trajectory not in 3-dimensional space, but in 4-dimensional space-time (with $ct$ as the 4th coordinate, $c=3\cdot 10^8\text{ m/s}$ being the speed of light). Therefore the table above also contains the values of $cT$.

Our goal is to find the curvature radius $R$ in 4-dimensional space-time. We can draw the curved trajectory in space-time ($z$ versus $ct$).

enter image description here

Of course this drawing is not to scale. Because of the huge value of $cT$ the curved trajectory at the top would be much less curved, and the center of curvature would be much further down. But it is enough for analyzing the geometry.

Applying Pythagoras' theorem to the right triangle we get: $$\left(\frac{cT}{2}\right)^2+(R-h)^2=R^2$$ or $$\left(\frac{cT}{2}\right)^2+R^2-2Rh+h^2=R^2$$ The $R^2$ cancels out. We can neglect the small $h^2$ and resolve for $R$: $$R=\frac{(cT)^2}{8h} \tag{3}$$ The calculated values of this curvature radius $R$ are also shown in the table above. It turns out, the radius $R$ is huge (nearly one light year) and (may be as a surprise) completely independent of the trajectory. To understand how this comes about, we can insert $h$ and $T$ from (1) and (2) into (3). We find $$R=\frac{c^2}{g} \tag{4}$$ This relation makes evident: The curvature of the trajectory in 4-dimensional space-time depends only on gravity $g$ and nothing else. Especially it is independent of the initial velocity $v$.

  • I get that the time component is numerically much larger. However, is my understanding correct that the time component has no say in the direction of the balls movement, only the timing? If so, then the fact that ball reverses direction should only be a matter of the spacial curvature, correct? If so, I think my hang up is how that spacial curvature supports a reversal of direction at two different spacial locations. – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 12:27
  • Having thought about this some more, I think I can see how the example of tossing the balls upwards resolves. If you chart the height vs time, you end up with each ball's flight tracing an arch on the 2d graph. I can imagine a curvature of this 2d space-time which would account for the reversal of the balls directions at different heights. And I think I'm ready to mark your answer as true since it is the most complete. However, I'm still having a hard time with the second part of my question, where the balls are dropped at different heights. – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 13:54
  • Cont from previous commment - The reason being that you could time the release of these balls so that they would hit the ground at the same time. My understanding is that the velocity at which they hit the ground is a product of the slope of the curvature. But if both balls are passing through the same place at the same time (close to it anyway), I'm not seeing why they would be at different velocities. It seems to me that the balls are traveling at different velocities because one fell longer, meaning what occurs at the moment of impact isn't just a product of the curvature at that space. – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 13:58
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    @HardlyCurious Yes, the initial velocity $v$ is essentially the initial slope of the arc in space-time. Because the curvature is always the same, a bigger initial slope results in a bigger height $h$ and a bigger length $cT$ of the arc. – Thomas Fritsch Aug 10 '21 at 15:00
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You must take into account the time dimension. You are assuming that since both balls where thrown upward from the same location on the same gravitating mass that they will follow the same geodesic. This is not true. You must take into account the time dimension (in addition to space). When you do this, you see that they do not follow the same path in space-time. That is, it takes less time for the ball thrown faster to reach a certain height. The other ball will take longer to reach this point (or may never reach this point because it may have already reached its maximum height and may be falling downward). Therefore, the two balls follow different paths in space-time and therefore their motion is determined by two different geodesics.

JRL
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  • I get that they aren't exactly in the same place at the same time. But it seems to me like that difference would be pretty subtle. Where as if you throw a ball up with twice the initial speed the difference in time spent in the air is not subtle. So I don't dispute what you are saying is true, I just need you to better justify that small difference accounting for the significant difference in the flight of the balls. – HardlyCurious Aug 10 '21 at 01:06
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    @HardlyCurious there is more to this than "they aren't exactly in the same place at the same time"; adding the time dimension is not a question of "degree"; it is the basis of all relativistic effects! – m4r35n357 Aug 10 '21 at 10:03
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The curvature of the spacetime through which the balls are moving is identical, but the balls set off through it in different directions. Whereas in space alone they appear to be heading in the same direction, in four dimensions they are taking different paths. To see this, simply plot two dimensions, z and t, using everyday units of m and s- you will see that the balls are launched in quite different directions through spacetime. If you use the unit ct for the time axis, the difference in the angles of launch of the two balls will then seem tiny, but they are moving at such a huge speed using those units that the overall effect on the trajectory is exactly the same.

Marco Ocram
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