I was reading the Griffin's Electrodynamics textbook and I came up with this question:
Suppose we have a uniform time-dependent magnetic field, I know that by Faraday's Law, we can calculate the induced electric field at the dashed Amperian loop to be $E=-\frac{s}{2}\frac{dB}{dt}\hat{\phi}$. However, if we choose another Amperian loop that intersects with the previous loop, then at the two intersections (the two blue dots), Faraday's Law will give a different direction of the induced electric field. May I ask how should I understand this difference?
My current thought is the induced electric field won't make physical sense if we don't have an actual "receiptor". That is to say the actual direction and magnitude of the electric field would be dependent on the shape of the actual circuit I put into the magnetic field. Therefore, the two imaginary loops in my question actually correspond to two different physical questions. Therefore the induced electric field will be different. Is my thinking correct?
"we can calculate the induced electric field at the dashed Amperian loop to be ..." We can't. There is no unique way to infer electric field from the magnetic field in this scenario. See my answer here https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/746838/31895 .
– Ján Lalinský Jan 23 '23 at 20:51