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Newton's shell theorem has two corollaries:

  1. The gravitational attraction of a spherically symmetric body acts as if all its mass were concentrated at the center, and

  2. The gravitational acceleration inside the cavity of a spherically symmetric body vanishes.

Consider a spaceship floating freely in space. In a homogeneous universe, the combined attraction from all matter should cancel out, and the spaceship should stay motionless. Nevertheless, I'm free to divide the attraction into several parts originating from different parts of the universe: In the figure below, I've divided the universe into a red sphere centered on some arbitrary point (×) with my spaceship located at the edge of the sphere, plus infinitely many shells centered on the same point.

By corollary #1, the gravitational attraction of the red sphere equals that of all its mass centered at the point ×. By corollary #2, the combined acceleration of the spaceship from all mass in the green shell vanishes. The same can be said for the blue shell, the orange shell, and so on ad infinitum.

Hence my spaceship should start accelerating toward ×. By choosing the sphere large enough, I should be able to make it accelerate arbitrarily fast, and by choosing the location of × I can make it accelerate in any direction.

ShellTheorem

Of course this doesn't work, but why?

My best guess is that, even in an infinite universe, you can't keep adding spheres because you'll exit the observable universe, in which case there's no way to feel the gravity in part of the shell so that it's no longer symmetric. Perhaps also the expansion of the universe matters. But see the last two points below.

A few more things to consider:

  • The mass of the red sphere increases with the chosen radius $r$ as $r^3$, while the acceleration it generates is proportional to $r^{-2}$; hence the acceleration increases linearly with the chosen $r$.

  • Our universe — the "Universe" — has an average density of some $10^{-29}\,\mathrm{g}\,\mathrm{cm}^{-3}$. Hence if I set $r$ equal to the radius of the observable Universe (46.3 billion light-years), the acceleration is a minuscule $10^{-7}\,\mathrm{cm}\,\mathrm{s}^{-2}$. If that bothers you, choose another universe where $\rho$ is ten orders of magnitude higher.

  • Our Universe is not really homogeneous, but on large enough scales ($\gtrsim$ half a billion light-years) it seems it is. Still, the acceleration of the spaceship will be dominated by nearby sources. If that bothers you, choose a sufficiently homogeneous universe.

  • On the scales we're considering, the Universe is not governed by Newtonian dynamics, but by general relativity. If that bothers you, use Birkhoff's theorem instead — I think the issue is the same.

  • If the issue is really that the size of the observable universe matters, then my intuition tells me that I can just choose an arbitrarily old universe where the asymmetric contribution from the most distant shells is arbitrarily small.

  • If the issue is that the universe expands (so that gravity from the far side of a shell is somehow weakened, or "redshifted"), then my intuition tells me that I can just choose a sufficiently static universe.

pela
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    Due to the nature of the observable universe, wouldn't a sufficiently homogeneous universe require that you and the x are always in the same position? As far as I understand the nature of an observable universe; it's spherical around the location of the observer; not about some location slightly offset from the observer, as the x would be in this case. All I know about cosmology/astronomy is stuff I've read online though, so I definitely may be wrong. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 12:45
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    Does the red sphere constitute any mass? (symmetrically located) – SmarthBansal Jul 10 '19 at 12:58
  • @JMac Yes, the observable universe of the spaceship is centered on the spaceship, but the shells are centered on the arbitrary point. Hence, for large enough shells, a part of a shell will be outside the observable universe, and hence may not be considered symmetric. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:14
  • @SmarthBansal Yes, mass is assumed to be homogeneously distributed throughout both the red sphere and all the shells. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:15
  • @pela How would the gravitational attraction affect you from outside the observable universe? Doesn't gravity also travel at the speed of light, and thus would be unable to affect you from outside the observable universe? – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 13:15
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    @JMac Yes, that's the point I was trying to make. But if I choose an arbitrarily old, large, and static universe, then the edge of the observable universe may be arbitrarily far away, so I think I can make the most distant shells contribute arbitrarily little to the accelerations. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:22
  • @pela "If the issue is that the universe expands..." I think this really is the issue. There are no stable static solutions for a universe with uniform density in either the Newtonian or the Relativistic equations. So I think the answers to my earlier question are relevant here. https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/430419/why-isnt-an-infinite-flat-nonexpanding-universe-filled-with-a-uniform-matter – D. Halsey Jul 10 '19 at 16:48
  • @pela The universal expansion guarantees that, wherever you place an object, it will immediately start moving wrt everything else. (looking at a sufficiently large scale, of course). – D. Halsey Jul 10 '19 at 16:56
  • Basically exactly identical (in spirit) question here. – knzhou Jul 11 '19 at 00:05
  • I think the fundamental flaw here is that you are taking a principle that applies to a very specific scenario and trying to apply it in a different scenario where it doesn't hold. That is, for #2 to hold, it's necessary for the interior of the shell to be hollow which isn't the case in your thought experiment. – JimmyJames Jul 11 '19 at 19:54
  • It seems you aren't paying attention to me but I'll elaborate: if you use first principles to derive the forces on an object inside a spherical 'gravitational soup' you'll find that it is different from what exists inside a shell. A pillar of your premise here is incorrect. – JimmyJames Jul 12 '19 at 17:13
  • @JimmyJames I'm sorry, I didn't see your comment. Thanks for your thoughts and for trying to offer a solution. Unfortunately, this is not true, as the gravitational attraction from one particle, or ensemble of particles, is independent of the attraction of other particles. So while the net acceleration inside a hollow sphere of course is different from the net acceleration inside a filled sphere, the acceleration can always be thought of as the sum of all particles, grouped however you wish. – pela Jul 13 '19 at 10:19
  • @pela You are correct but the gravitational forces between two particles is based on their mass and distance from each other, not some arbitrary point in space. The 'shell' is a shortcut that depends on a specific geometry, not a law of nature. There's a reason that the description of this specifically notes an 'empty cavity'. If it's irrelevant, why do you think it's given as a necessary condition? – JimmyJames Jul 17 '19 at 15:49
  • @pela Let's come at it from a different angle: you can model things they way you describe and when you consider a single point, it is as you say. But what is special about that point? Nothing other than it's the one you are thinking about at the moment. But the universe is not 'considering' each point in isolation. Every other point in the (edge-less, homogeneous) universe is equivalent. When you consider all the points of the universe together, you get no net force. Effectively it's a complicated way to get to the obvious answer. – JimmyJames Jul 17 '19 at 17:42
  • @JimmyJames The gravitational attraction of a shell on a test particle doesn't depend on whether the shell is empty or not. Of course, if the shell is not empty, there will be an additional effect from that matter. When you calculate gravity from a shell, you regard it as empty because you're only interested in gravity of the shell. But that doesn't mean that the theorem doesn't hold if the shell in non-empty, it only means that, if you're interested in the net gravitational effect and not just the shell's gravity, you will have to calculate the gravitation from the interior as well. – pela Jul 18 '19 at 10:12
  • Closely related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/430419/why-isnt-an-infinite-flat-nonexpanding-universe-filled-with-a-uniform-matter – tparker Aug 22 '21 at 22:38
  • I did a numerical experiment with a circular shell containing non interacting particles but repelled by the inverse square force from the shell. The acceleration towards the centre in the question is true and quite clear if a particle has zero initial velocity. If the initial velocity is not zero, the particle makes an elliptic path. If at the centre it remains there. – Riad Jan 21 '24 at 11:11

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The problem lies in the boundary conditions. Ignoring factors of $G$ and $\pi$, gauss's law of gravitation relates the gravitational potential $\Phi$ to the mass density $\rho$ by $$\rho=-\nabla^2 \Phi. $$ In order to have a unique, well-defined solution, we need to specify boundary conditions for $\Phi$. Usually, we assume that $\rho$ dies off sufficiently quickly at spatial infinity that a reasonable choice of boundary condition is $\Phi(|\vec x|\to\infty)=0$ is. The shell theorem relies on this assumption. However in your example $\rho$ does not die off at infinity and is instead non-zero everywhere and therefore the shell theorem fails.

Often when a given scenario in physics doesn't, but almost, satisfies the 'if' part of a theorem, it can be helpful to try and modify the problem so that it does. Therefore we can use a window function $W_\epsilon(x-x_0)$ that dies off quickly as $x\to\infty$ but $\lim_{\epsilon\to0} W_\epsilon =1$ to regulate the charge density. [e.g. take $W_\epsilon(x-x_0)=e^{-\epsilon (\vec x-\vec x_0)^2}$.] Then we can replace your uniform charge density $\rho$ by $$\rho\to\rho_{\epsilon,x_0}\equiv \rho W_\epsilon(x-x_0) .$$ In this case, the shell theorem does hold. However, the result we get is not regulator-independent, that is if we solve for $\Phi_{\epsilon,x_0}$ using the charge distribution $\rho_{\epsilon,x_0}$ and then send $\epsilon \to0$, we find that our answer still depends on choice of $x_0$. This is the mathematically rigorous way to see that there really is an ambiguity when applying the shell theorem to such a situation!

Edit: There seems to be some debate in the comments as to whether the shell theorem should be proved with forces or with Gauss's law. In reality, it doesn't matter, but I will address what goes wrong if you just use forces. Essentially, Newton's laws are only guaranteed to be valid if there is a finite amount of matter in the universe. Clearly if there is uniform mass density throughout all of space, then there is an infinite amount of matter, so the shell theorem fails. The requirement that $\rho(|\vec x|\to \infty)\to 0$ 'sufficiently quickly' from above is more precisely that $\int d^3 x \rho(x) <\infty$, which is just the condition that there is a finite amount of matter in the universe.

user105620
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  • @A.V.S. Its proof, however, generally follows from Gauss' law, which requires the aforementioned boundary conditions in order to reconstruct the gravitational field. – J. Murray Jul 10 '19 at 16:23
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    @A.V.S. Newton's proof seems to apply to a hollow spherical shell. I'm not sure how you would extend it to an infinite, homogeneous mass distribution in a well-defined way. – J. Murray Jul 10 '19 at 16:35
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    @A.V.S. that proof uses Newton's law of universal gravitation, which isn't valid without the right boundary conditions either, viz., given an infinite universe with a homogeneous mass distribution, you can't sum up the terms in a meaningful way (as the OPs question demonstrates). – Harry Johnston Jul 11 '19 at 00:38
  • Wouldn't the size of the universe be spatially bound as a finite sized sphere around the observer though? The gravitational potential should have a finite size, because outside of the observable universe, gravity should have no possible way of interacting with the observer. – JMac Jul 11 '19 at 02:35
  • Thanks a lot for your answer! I'm a bit in doubt about your statement "Newton's laws are only guaranteed to be valid if there is a finite amount of matter in the universe". Is this true? I though he essentially argued that the Universe must be infinite, otherwise it would collapse. – pela Jul 11 '19 at 05:52
  • I was under the impression that our universe does not necessarily have finite mass? If the unobservable universe is infinitely big, then vacuum energy contributes an infinite amount. – Fax Jul 11 '19 at 10:43
  • Newton's laws of physics cant really account for the universe on large scales. For this, we need to introduce the cosmological constant or dark energy to force the universe to expand. In the absents of something to force the universe apart, it will collapse in on itself. So really a newtonian universe will collapse. As a result, in a newtonian universe, the entire universe is observable-- the idea that only a portion of the universe is observable is an effect of general relativity. – user105620 Jul 11 '19 at 13:30
  • Also, from a practical standpoint, it is possible to use a non-relativistic approximation for the universe on large scales-- often times this is useful when modeling dark matter on very large scales. In this case, you have some constant background mass density $\rho_0$ and then consider small fluctuations about it $\rho(x) = \rho_0+\delta\rho(x)$. In this case, you use a modified version of Gauss's law where only $\delta\rho(x)$ sources the gravitational potential $\delta\rho=-\nabla^2\Phi$. – user105620 Jul 11 '19 at 13:38
  • In reality, $\delta\rho$ doesn't actually vanish at infinity, but its average value is $0$, so it's sufficiently well-behaved that if you do the trick with the window function $W_\epsilon$, the answer you get is unique. The reason you are able to just forget about $\rho_0$ is that in general relativity, such a term just gives a contribution to the background geometry (sort of similar to the cosmological constant). – user105620 Jul 11 '19 at 13:38
  • Upon reflection, my main issue is not the use of potential (so I've removed my earlier comments), but in the assumption that specifying boundary conditions is necessary for this problem to make sense. While that might be true for general “infinitary” mass distribution, here we have symmetries, the $ISO(3)$ group of homogeneity and isotropy. Consequently, requiring the invariance of solution (all time-dependent fields $\Phi$, $\bf v$, $\rho$) under its action is enough to determine it. – A.V.S. Jul 15 '19 at 18:55
  • … cont. Note, that the transformation of $\Phi$ under translations requires the addition of large gauge transformations of the form $\Phi\to \Phi + (\vec{a}\cdot\vec{x})$. This is rooted in the fact that if the whole universe is freefalling with constant acceleration, we cannot measure it. So a solution is just $\Phi \sim |\vec{x}-\vec{x}_0|^2$ with the addition of interpretation that not only $\Phi$ is not directly observable, but also $\vec{g}$. – A.V.S. Jul 15 '19 at 19:13
  • "Newton's laws are only guaranteed to be valid if there is a finite amount of matter in the universe.". When was this fact discovered/realized and how can you prove it? –  Jun 27 '22 at 16:09
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Updated 07.11

We can chose the model to discuss the problem and so let us chose:

Model: Newtonian mechanics/Newtonian gravity, with the Universe filled with uniformly dense matter, interacting only gravitationally (in cosmology this called “dust matter”), and at the initial time of our spaceship journey all this matter is at rest.

Hence my spaceship should start accelerating toward ×. By choosing the sphere large enough, I should be able to make it accelerate arbitrarily fast, and by choosing the location of × I can make it accelerate in any direction.

Absolutely!

Of course this doesn't work, but why?.

It does work. If we assume that initially the spaceship was at rest together with the whole universe it will reach the point × in time needed for the ship to fall into a point mass equal to the mass of the pink sphere.

The problem is that by that time all of the pink sphere also falls toward that same point as well, as do all other colored spheres and the rest of the universe also. If our astronaut checks its distance to the point × before the spaceship falls into it she would notice that this distance has decreased, but at the same time is she checks her surroundings she would notice that the spaceship is surrounded by precisely the same matter particles that when the journey started only they are closer to each other and to the spaceship. This distance contraction is simply a Newtonian version of Big Crunch event.

If the universe is filled with matter interacting only gravitationally and we assume that the density of matter will stay uniform throughout the universe, then the only conclusion would be that such universe is not static. It has either (Newtonian version of) Big Bang in its past or Big Crunch in its future (or in our model, since we chose initial moment as a turning point from expansion to contraction, it has both).

It may seem that the whole Universe falling toward our chosen point × is an absurdity, since we have chosen this point arbitrarily. But in this situation there is no paradox, the acceleration of all matter toward this point is due to the fact that in our setup there is no “absolute space”, no set of outside stationary inertial observers which could give us absolute accelerations, instead we can only choose a reference point × (or rather specify an observer located at this point and at rest with respect to surrounding matter) and calculate relative accelerations toward this point.

Recall, that the first principle of Newtonian mechanics states that every particle continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is acted upon by some exterior force. For an isolated system, for example collection of gravitating objects of finite total mass we could (at least in principle) place an observer at rest so far away that it could be considered an inertial object. This would allow us to define a reference frame with respect to which we would measure accelerations. But in our Newtonian cosmology matter is filling the whole Universe, there is no observer on which gravity is not acting, so there is no set of reference frames defined by observers “at infinity” only observers inside the matter concentrations that are affected by the gravitational forces.

While there is no absolute accelerations, the relative positions ($\mathbf{d}_{AB}(t)= \mathbf{x}_A(t)-\mathbf{x}_B(t)$ between objects $A$ and $B$ comoving with the matter of the universe) do have a meaning independent of the choice of reference point. This relative positions, relative velocities ($\dot{\mathbf{d}}_{AB}$), relative accelerations, etc. constitute the set of unambiguously defined quantities measurable within our universe.

then my intuition tells me that I can just choose a sufficiently static universe.

This intuition is wrong, if there is a gravitational force that would accelerate your spaceship toward ×, then it would also be acting on a nearby matter (call them dust particles or planets or stars) producing the same acceleration, so all of the universe would be falling toward ×.


Note on Newtonian cosmology it may seems that Newtonian theory of gravitation is ill suited to handle homogeneous spatially infinite distributions of matter. But one can try to separate the physics of the situation from the deficiencies of particular formalism and possibly to overcome them. As a motivation we could note that over large, cosmological distances our universe to a high degree of accuracy could be considered spatially flat, and the velocities of most massive objects relative to each other and to the frame of CMB are very small compared with the speed of light, meaning that Newtonian approximation may be appropriate. While we do know that general relativity provides a better description for the gravitation, Newtonian gravity is computationally and conceptually much simpler. This seems to suggest that it is worthwhile to “fix” whatever problems one encounters while attempting to formalize cosmological solutions of Newtonian gravity.

The most natural approach is to “geometrize” Newtonian gravity and instead of “force” consider it a part of geometry, dynamical connection representing gravity and inertia. This is done within the framework of Newton–Cartan theory.

As a more detailed reference, with an emphasis on cosmology, see this paper (knowledge of general relativity is required):

Newton–Cartan theory underscores conceptual similarities between Newtonian gravity and general relativity, with Galilei group replacing the Lorentz group of GR. The general approach is coordinate-free and is closely related to the machinery of general relativity, but a specific choice of local Galilei coordinates would produce the usual equations for acceleration ($\mathop{\mathrm{div}} \mathbf{g} = - 4\pi \rho$), with gravitational acceleration now being part of Newtonian connection. Homogeneous and isotropic cosmological solutions are a straightforward lifts of FLRW cosmologies.

While equations are the same, we may already answer some conceptual questions.

  1. Since gravitational acceleration is part of the connection, there is no reason to expect it to be an “absolute” object, there would be gauge transformations that would alter it. We can have multiple charts on which we define the physics with the normally defined transition maps between.

  2. We can have a closed FRW cosmology, the “space” does not has to be a Euclidean space, it could be torus $T_3$ (field equations require that locally the space is flat). Since the spatial volume of a closed universe varies, and tend to zero as the universe approaches the Big Crunch, this asserts that not just matter but space itself collapses during the Big Crunch (to answer one of the comments).

  3. It is quite simple to include the cosmological constant / dark energy thus making the models more realistic.

Note on answer by user105620: If we formulate a regularization procedure by introducing a window function $W(\epsilon,x_0)$ that would make potential well behaved. This provides us with an another way to “fix” problems of our cosmological model. The acceleration of our spaceship computed with this regularization is indeed dependent on the choice of $x_0$ in the limit $\epsilon\to 0$, which is the consequence of the same freedom in choosing the reference point ×. But he/she just should not have stopped there. Divergences requiring the use of regulators and ambiguities remaining after regularization are quite normal features in developing physical models. The next step would be identifying the physically meaningful quantities and checking that those are independent on the regulator artifacts. In our case neither potential $\Phi$ nor gravitational acceleration $\mathbf{g}$ are directly observable in this model. Relative positions, relative velocities and relative accelerations are observable and those are turning to be independent of the regulator parameter $x_0$.

A.V.S.
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  • Thanks for your answer, A.V.S.! I'm tempted to think that this is the solution, but I'll have to think a bit more about it. So, basically a static, dust-filled, Newtonian universe is impossible, in contrast to what Newton thought. But how about a GR universe with an exact amount of dark energy to counteract matter? Maybe that's unrealistic because it's unstable… – pela Jul 11 '19 at 06:00
  • @pela: Newtonian gravity in some aspects is much closer to GR than most people realize. You can also have a static Newtonian universe if you add cosmological constant term and it would be precise limit of Einstein static universe in GR and it also would not be stable. On a more technical level a geometric formulation of Newtonian gravity better equipped to deal with situations like infinite matter distributions is a Newton-Cartan theory, see this paper https://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9604054 for a sample of cosmologies. – A.V.S. Jul 11 '19 at 06:38
  • This feels a bit disingenuous. It feels like you're saying "everything's hunky-dory with basic Newtonian gravity with these inputs", which I emphatically disagree with, but I think a more honest answer expressing your point is the statement "there exists a generalization of basic Newtonian gravity that handles your inputs in such a way that these apparent contradictions make sense". You haven't addressed why the contradictory basic Newtonian gravity interpretation of OP's observations (e.g., the spaceship has multiple accelerations) arises. – jawheele Jul 11 '19 at 07:12
  • Thanks for the reference, A.V.S.. I'm still a bit confused though: We agree that in Newtonian dynamics, space doesn't collapse, right? Only matter within space. And that would mean that Newton's universe cannot be infinite, since that would require traversing an infinite distance in a finite time. So basically the solution in a Newtonian universe is that you can't keep adding symmetric shells, because at some point you'll reach the edge of the universe? – pela Jul 11 '19 at 07:15
  • @jawheele I think I'm okay with "multiple accelerations", because in A.V.S.'s model, everything collapses together, meaning that any particle (including the spaceship) approaches any other point at an accelerating speed. – pela Jul 11 '19 at 07:17
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    @jawheele: But my point is that the physics (Newtonian gravity) is distinct from artifacts of particular formalization (potential with a good falloff). OP's physical intuition is correct, it just need better framework to be expressed. But I also see your point and will extend my answer later today. – A.V.S. Jul 11 '19 at 07:29
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    This doesn't make sense. You seem to be implying that, based on an arbitrary choice of what you consider $x$, the whole universe will collapse towards that point. – Chris Jul 11 '19 at 16:13
  • @Chris: State of rest (or of uniform motion) is not absolute even in Newtonian theory if you do not have a dedicated set of objects which would serve as a reference for inertial motion. See my extended answer. – A.V.S. Jul 11 '19 at 20:40
  • Thanks again! I think your last comment is what I failed to see. I've now discussed the problem with three cosmologists, and see the basically my thought experiment just creates a Hubble flow, either expanding or collapsing. And if I try to make my universe static by introducing some Λ-ish term, that will affect the motion of both dust particles and spaceship. I'm still a bit in doubt, though, about the fact that the shell aren't centered on the spaceship's observable universe, and that there may be an effect from not being able to feel gravity from the part of the shells outside the obs. uni. – pela Jul 15 '19 at 16:18
  • @pela: re: part of the shells outside the obs. uni. In Newtonian world the speed of signals propagation is infinite, so observable universe is all there is. If signal propagation at a finite speed is important, you need to use GR, with it much more intricate causal structures. In general relativity, the homogeneous and isotropic universe is a solution of Einstein equations called FRW metric. – A.V.S. Jul 15 '19 at 18:39
  • I think I've been a bit vague on defining whether the problem is Newtonian or GR. But isn't this solution equally valid in GR? – pela Jul 16 '19 at 08:33
  • Yes, solution (FRW metric) has the same basic properties, but there are new options: closed and open cosmologies, and the Friedmann equations now has additional terms (with $k$ and $p$) and the cosmological constant is more “natural”, it is the interpretation in terms of shell theorem that needed to be changed: GR is a nonlinear and local theory, generally it is not possible to write a solution as an integral of sources over some domain. The closest one has to shell theorem is Birkhoff's theorem which is for vacuum spacetimes only. – A.V.S. Jul 16 '19 at 12:59
  • Hmm… if I understand you correctly, in GR the problem isn't really a problem — even considering only flat universes — since I can't make the spaceship accelerate by Birkhoff's theorem in the first place. There isn't a solution, like there is in the Newtonian case, that will apparently make the spaceship move? – pela Jul 16 '19 at 13:53
  • In GR there is a language to distinguish between coordinate system artifacts, statements about specific reference frames, statements true for a specific observer and observer independent statements. Historically, before the language of GR evolved, there had been works making statements roughly equivalent to arbitrarily accelerated spaceship. – A.V.S. Jul 16 '19 at 15:26
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by choosing the location of × I can make it accelerate in any direction.

This freedom of choice is the key to the puzzle. I'll assume Newtonian gravity in a static universe filled with a homogeneous dust.

Let the ship be at the origin. The ship feels a force proportional to $x$ towards the centre of the sphere of radius $x$ centered at $\pmb{x}$, but it also feels the exact opposite force towards the centre of the identical but disjoint sphere centered at $\pmb{-x}$, so these two forces cancel exactly. In each case, I'm only considering the mass inside the ball and ignoring the mass outside it, per the shell theorem.

The same logic applies to any arbitrary $\pmb{x}$.

PM 2Ring
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  • Realistically, if the concentric rings represent the observable universe, doesn't the observer have to be in the centre? Assuming I understand the concept of the observable universe correctly, it should be spherically uniform around any stationary observer, regardless of position. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 13:14
  • Thanks for the answer, PM 2Ring (and +1). You're right that I might choose either $\mathbf{x}$ and $-\mathbf{x}$, and this choice will result in oppositely directed accelerations. But given a choice, say $\mathbf{x}$, then all mass in the universe is accounted for, so I cannot at the same time choose both $\mathbf{x}$ and $-\mathbf{x}$. Hence, there can be no canceling. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:18
  • @JMac The concentric rings don't represent the observable universe of the spaceship; they're offset by "$\mathbf{x}$". – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:25
  • @pela But you're applying the shell theorem about the x; not about yourself; but the observable universe, and thus all forces acting on the body, must be concentric around the observer, not some arbitrary x. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 13:37
  • @pela Good point! I've adjusted my answer. I think that covers it. But if not, randomly assign each dust particle with a .5 probability either to the $\pmb x$ system, or to the $\pmb{-x}$ system. Now we have a pair of gravitating systems, and I think we can just add them linearly. – PM 2Ring Jul 10 '19 at 13:44
  • But that also doesn't work, or at least doesn't solve my problem (I think), since now you cannot apply the shell theorem to the rest of the universe, because you already accounted for the extra sphere. I agree that, by symmetry, your spaceship doesn't move, and this is of course how it should be. But I should be free to not consider your {sphere1 + sphere2 + rest} and instead consider my {sphere1 + shell1 + shel2 + …}. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:51
  • @JMac You might be right, but I'm still not convinced: What if my (insanely homogeneous) universe is a peta-year old and a yotta-light-year in radius (or whatever), and I choose my $r$ to be 1 cm. Then the outermost shell extents ever-so-slightly beyond the observable universe, but the effect of this, compared to the rest, can be made arbitrarily small (I think, but I'm probably wrong). – pela Jul 10 '19 at 13:52
  • @pela I don't understand how that resolves your issue. The spherical body of your homogeneous universe is centered around you, regardless how large that universe is; not around an arbitrary point any distance away from you. I really don't understand how changing the scale actually would change that fact at all. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 13:56
  • @JMac Maybe it doesn't. You might be right, but as far as I see, changing the scale can make the contribution from the "missing part" — i.e. the part of the shell outside the observable universe — arbitrarily small, and hence effectively vanish. – pela Jul 10 '19 at 14:04
  • @pela I don't understand why you would expect that arbitrarily small force to be negligible, while the force at location x isn't. Would that not violate the shell theorem, by saying "well if the shell is big enough..." even though it applies regardless of scale. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 14:07
  • @JMac Hmm… yeah, you're probably right. That should be provable by solving the shell theorem for $r_\mathrm{universe}\rightarrow\infty$ and showing that the contribution from the outermost shell — which is then not a shell because it extents beyond the observable universe — doesn't decrease slower than the contribution from the sphere. I'm just not comfortable solving the integral of the non-shell… – pela Jul 10 '19 at 14:22
  • @pela I'm pretty sure that for shell theorem to be true, the change in the external force would have to exactly offset the force of gravity due to the new sphere in the middle. It makes sense. The further the distance between you and x, the greater the gravitational force from x; but the lower the gravitational force from the part of the shell directly in the direction of x. – JMac Jul 10 '19 at 14:25
  • @JMac Yeah, I'm "pretty sure" too. It's just… there's a small step from "pretty sure" to "mathematically rigorous" :) – pela Jul 10 '19 at 14:47
  • assume Newtonian gravity in a static universe filled with a homogeneous dust you cannot have static universe with dust matter in Newtonian gravity (-1). – A.V.S. Jul 10 '19 at 15:08
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    This just isn't right, either physically or mathematically, as I argued here. For any finite Newtonian mass distribution, you have a center towards which everything collapses. And for any infinite mass distribution, the evolution is not even defined unless you have boundary conditions. And any set of boundary conditions will specify a center toward which everything collapses. You just can't escape the collapse. – knzhou Jul 11 '19 at 00:14
  • @knzhou Ok, you've convinced me (I'd already upvoted your linked answer), but I'll leave this answer here for now, so someone else doesn't post essentially the same argument, and so that people can read the comments. – PM 2Ring Jul 11 '19 at 03:30
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I'd like to address, in a rigorous way, what's going on mathematically that leads to this apparent contradiction. Newton's shell theorem, as proved by Newton, is a statement about the gravitational field as defined through the Newton's law of universal gravitation,

$$\mathbf{g}(\vec{x}) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^3}\rho(\vec x') \frac{(\vec x'-\vec x)}{|\vec x'-\vec x|^3} d^3x'. \tag{1}$$ Where $\rho: \mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}_+$ is the mass-density function, which we will take to be constant. Whether this formula is formally what one wants to call Newtonian Gravity or not, this is where our contradiction must lie. By definition, the above formula implies that the $i$th component $\mathbf{g}_i(\vec x)$ of the gravitational field is $$\mathbf{g}_i(\vec x) = \rho \int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \frac{x_i'-x_i}{|\vec x'-\vec x|^3} d^3x',$$ and now our integrand is simply a real-valued function, a situation with which we are comfortable. However, the fundamental issue with this expression is that, though it looks like we may well call it zero by symmetry, the integrand is not integrable in the Lebesgue or improper Riemann sense because it is not absolutely integrable, i.e. $$\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \frac{|x_i'-x_i|}{|\vec x'-\vec x|^3} d^3x' = \infty$$ in the Legesgue sense. Here's the kicker: because our integrand is not integrable, we cannot expect theorems indicating consistency under change of coordinates and passing to iterated integrals to apply. But this is precisely our issue: each time you apply the shell theorem about a different choice of center, you are invoking a change to a particular set of spherical coordinates and computing the resulting expression via an iterated integral (one must, as Newton's shell theorem applies to an "infinitesimally" thin spherical shell). Because of the above technical issue, the values obtained in each case need not be consistent with each other.

As discussed by user105620, different types of issues arise in the formulation of Newtonian gravity through a potential, wherein $\mathbf{g}$ is determined by the conditions $\vec \nabla \cdot \mathbf{g} = \rho$, $\vec \nabla \times \mathbf{g} = 0$, and a boundary condition on $\mathbf{g}$. If $\rho$ does not decay sufficiently fast (as in the hypotheses of the linked result), this formulation is not generally well-posed, i.e. such a $\mathbf{g}$ may not exist (though, if it does, it is probably unique, depending on the boundary condition).

Existence aside, the shell theorem in this case, proven by the divergence theorem, hinges on being able to assume spherical symmetry of $\mathbf{g}$ from that of $\rho$. One can easily show that this works fine for the standard case of $\rho$ decaying sufficiently fast with the boundary condition $\mathbf{g} \to 0$ at infinity, but it is not clear at all how to prescribe a physically reasonable boundary condition that ensures it is allowed otherwise. Indeed, for the constant $\rho$ case, $\mathbf{g}(\vec x) = \frac{\rho}{3} (\vec x - \vec x_0)$ satisfies the PDE conditions for any $\vec x_0$, but such solutions do not differ by a constant, so the linked uniqueness statement above implies that all standard types of boundary conditions (Dirichlet, Neumann, and mixed) can only select one of these. That is, in potential Newtonian gravity, standard choices of boundary conditions cannot generically allow us to assume spherical symmetry of $\mathbf{g}$ from that of $\rho$ when $\rho$ does not decay, and hence the shell theorem generally fails in this case.

Ultimately, then, your contradiction comes down this: considering the two most basic theories of Newtonian gravity which naturally include the shell theorem, it turns out that one theory simply doesn't make mathematical sense in the non-decaying $\rho$ case, while the other theory's shell theorem necessarily breaks down in the non-decaying $\rho$ case.

jawheele
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  • If your assertion is that the formalism chosen (by you) is inadequate, then I agree. But this does not mean that the situation of OP's question “infinite homogeneous universe with Newtonian gravity” is unphysical, you just have to chose a better formalism, Newton-Cartan gravity is a good choice, but things also could move along @user105620's way by specifying a regularization procedure and formalizing what are the physically meaningful quantities. – A.V.S. Jul 11 '19 at 07:18
  • Thanks for the rigorous discussion, jawheele. I'm a bit in doubt by your last statement: What are the "two most basic theories" of Newtonian gravity? – pela Jul 11 '19 at 07:31
  • @A.V.S. I don't disagree; it just seems such explorations don't really address, to my mind, OP's question of why the apparent contradictions are arising, but instead how they might be addressed. I chose these formalisms because they are both naturally associated to the shell theorem, are (in my experience) usually what people mean by the term "Newtonian gravity", and because they are formalisms within which OP's conclusions are problematic. – jawheele Jul 11 '19 at 07:49
  • @pela The two theories I'm referring to are $(1)$ Newton's law of universal gravitation and (2) $\mathbf{g}$ is determined by $\vec \nabla \cdot \mathbf{g} = 4 \pi \rho$, $\vec \nabla \times \mathbf{g} = 0$, and a boundary condition. These are equivalent when $\rho$ decays sufficiently fast and the boundary condition is $\mathbf{g} \to 0$ at infinity. – jawheele Jul 11 '19 at 07:52
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    I have been miserable for years trying to figure out the answer to this same question. This is the only satisfactory answer that I have ever found, thanks! –  Jun 27 '22 at 17:29
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From a very quick skim it seems the existing answers are excellent, so I'll instead contribute some of the physics and philosophy literature. I too was concerned by this issue after reading a certain paper (Peacock 2001, incidentally), until I discovered centuries of thought preceded me!

Your concern was apparently first raised by Bishop Berkeley, in discussion with Newton himself. Much later Seeliger (1890s) sharpened and popularised the critique. See Norton (1999), "The cosmological woes of Newtonian gravitation theory" for history. Norton also discusses the analogous issue for Coulomb's law of electric force.

Remarkably, Newtonian cosmology was only worked out after the general relativistic case, by Milne and also McCrea. Here I particularly mean the rate of expansion, which closely resembles the relativistic Friedmann equations incidentally. [I'm assuming a homogeneous and isotropic universe. Otherwise, see Buchert & Ehlers (1997).] But again your objection was raised. Finally, Heckmann & Schucking (1955) are credited with making Newtonian cosmology great again rigorous.

Norton was yet another who independently raised the centuries-old objections. Malament (1995) defended by describing 3 formulations of Newtonian gravity: the $1/r^2$ force law, Poisson's equation, and Newton-Cartan theory. Norton (1995) concurred, yet added that acceleration becomes relative! Tipler (1996a, 1996b) has nice papers from the same time. Wallace (2017) looks interesting, such as the section title "2. Non-uniqueness of solutions to Poisson's equation".

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You should sum up contribution of shells centered at the test particle, not at the center of the arbitrary sphere. The shell theorem is not applicable in this case.

Let's consider a simpler 1D case.

enter image description here

Suppose a rope pulling (tug of war) game with infinite number of players in the both teams with a test particle at zero.

All players produce the same pull and are located at all integer distances from zero, but at zero itself and at $1$ the players are missing.

Which team will win? Here we step into the area of divergent series and integrals. The cardinalities of the sets {-1,-2,-3,...} and {2,3,4,...} are the same, but they have different numerocities. By definition, numerocity is the sum of the indicator function over the set: $\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty p(k)$, where $p(k)$ is $1$ if $k$ is in the set and $0$ otherwise.

So, the numerocity of the left team is $\sum_{k=-\infty}^{-1} 1$ while the numerocity of the right team is $\sum_{k=2}^\infty 1$. The both sums are divergent, but their regularized values are different.

The regularized value of the left-hand sum is $-1/2$ while the regularized value of the right-hand sum is $-3/2$.

They also can be expressed with integrals as $\int_{-\infty}^{-1/2}dx$ and $\int_{3/2}^\infty dx$.

If the infinite parts cancel each other, the finite parts give victory to the left-hand-side team.

In a more complicated 3D case one should account for situations, where the infinite parts may not cancel each other (this is not the case of your original question, but may arise if at the sides of a test particle are infinite cones, cylinders, paraboloids, sponges or other infinite shapes, which need to be compared).

Due to Fourier or Laplace transform we can formally denote the divergent integral $\int_0^\infty dx$ as $\pi\delta(0)$ or, for simplicity, $\tau$.

This way, the strength of the left-hand team in our example is $\int_{-\infty}^{-1/2}=\tau-1/2$ and the strength of the right-hand team is $\int_{2/2}^\infty=\tau-3/2$

The integrals of monomials, needed in multi-dimensional complicated cases will follow the following law:

$\int_0^\infty x^n dx=\frac{\left(\tau +\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n+2}-\left(\tau -\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n+2}}{(n+1)(n+2)}$

For more information on divergent integrals, see here (need MathML-capable browser (Firefox, PaleMoon).

Anixx
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  • Sorry, only saw this answer now. Thanks! I'm not exactly sure I understand though. Are you saying that there is an asymmetry in the tug-of-war contest, so that "infinite parts cancel each other", and one team will win? In that case, it seems to me that, by analogy, the spaceship will start accelerating against my arbitrary point, which is the same result as the other explanation. And that is fine, but you also say that I can't invoke the shell theorem. I guess what I'm trying to say is, is there really a conflict between your explanation and the other ones? – pela Aug 23 '21 at 11:24
  • @pela if the ship is not in the center of mass of the cavity, it will accelerate. If it is in the center of mass of the cavity, it will not accelerate. The symmetry argument applies here. – Anixx Aug 23 '21 at 12:03
  • @pela if there is no cavity, the spaceship will not accelerate, obviously. Newton's shell theorem is not applicable, you should integrate forces over shells centered at the ship, not centered on an arbitrary point. – Anixx Aug 23 '21 at 12:05
  • Hmm… If I understand correctly, that seems to conflict with the accepted answer, which says that the ship will acellerate, but so will everything else, leading to a universal collapse. You say that, inside a cavity, the ship will accelerate if it's not in the center. But inside a cavity, the gravitational field is zero everywhere, no? Also, I think I still don't understand why I can't integrate forces over shells centered anywhere I want… – pela Aug 24 '21 at 10:47
  • " But inside a cavity, the gravitational field is zero everywhere, no?" - no, you cannot treat infinite universe as a spherical shell. – Anixx Aug 24 '21 at 17:21
  • @pela "Also, I think I still don't understand why I can't integrate forces over shells centered anywhere I want" - because of divergent (and not absolutely convergent) integrals and series properties. The order of the terms makes difference, the shift of the terms makes difference as well. $\sum_{k=0}^\infty 1$ has regularized value of $1/2$, while $\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1$ has regularized value of $-1/2$. They differ only in the start of summation. – Anixx Aug 24 '21 at 17:24
  • Hmm… I'm still not convinced (sorry :) ). If inside a cavity in an otherwise homogeneous universe the gravitational field doesn't vanish, that seems to me to imply an asymmetry which must be evaluated "at infinity". I mean, the G-field of the shell just outside the cavity vanishes, the G-field of the next shell vanishes, etc., right? (not saying you're wrong, I just don't get it — anyway +1 for your answer). – pela Aug 25 '21 at 11:07
  • @pela I did not understand the first part of your comment, sorry. As to the second part, "I mean, the G-field of the shell just outside the cavity vanishes, the G-field of the next shell vanishes, etc., right?" - yes, for finite number of steps/thickness of shell. But if you want to evaluate an infinite integral, the shift matters. For instance, $\int_{-1}^\infty (x+1)dx$ and $\int_1^\infty (x-1)dx$ differ, even though the figures under the integrals are the same. Their regularized values (1/2 vs -1/2) and their infinite parts differ (the difference between them is $1+2\int_1^\infty dx$). – Anixx Aug 25 '21 at 15:00
  • What I meant was: Inside a cavity in an otherwise homogeneous universe, the gravitational field resulting just from material in a thin shell around the cavity is zero. That's the Shell Theorem, I guess we agree on this (?). The G-field due to material in a shell just outside the first shell is also zero. And so on. No matter how many shells you evaluate, as long as it's a finite number, the G-field is zero. So it seems to me that, when you say that the G-field inside that cavity is not zero, it must be because of material "at infinity". – pela Aug 26 '21 at 14:05
  • I think I understand what you say about the shift, but I don't understand how my argumentation in previous comment (i.e. just above this one) is not valid. – pela Aug 26 '21 at 14:06
  • "it must be because of material "at infinity"" - one can put it this way, but I would talk about divergent integral/series.

    – Anixx Aug 27 '21 at 01:45
  • Okay, thanks for your effort Anixx. I'll have to think a bit more about this in relation to the other answers before understanding fully, I think. – pela Aug 27 '21 at 13:20
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The spaceship doesn't accelerate in either direction but the gravitational effect between points can be thought of as slowing down the expansion of the universe. There is a lecture here by Susskind using precisely this approach to derive the Friedmann Equations:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=938_TNP4aUs

  • While this link may answer the question, it is better to include the essential parts of the answer here and provide the link for reference. Link-only answers can become invalid if the linked page changes. - From Review – jng224 Feb 01 '22 at 07:32
  • My apologies, I felt that previous answers had resolved the original question but that this resource might be of interest. – FleetFoot Feb 07 '22 at 16:28
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It is the case that by invoking this red circle with center x, to use the shell theorem you must be physically at the edge of the universe for it to work. Because if this is not the case, you arbitrarily chose a circle and point x on the left side of your spaceship, which you could have equally as well have drawn to the right side of you in this homogenous universe. And those cancel out, similar to the trivial proof of Newton in corollary 2 (proposition 70). For his proof uses actual spheres, with actual centers; not arbitrary ones. That is the problem with your scenario.

  • Hmm, no, this is not correct. If I choose a point x on the left, I can apply the shell theorem which, when I start adding up shells, will eventually include all other points. There is no "canceling out" by applying the theorem again centered on a point to the right, because that point is already included in the sum centered on the left. – pela Oct 19 '22 at 12:50
  • Applying this in a homogenous universe equates to a massive sphere, not a hollow sphere. Then the acceleration would be linear with the distance of x. That is your point I guess. Well then my comment would be you assume the universe to be a massive sphere with center x surrounded by infinite shells: but x is not really the center so the application of corollary 2 is an illegal move, and thus the sum incorrect – Apsteronaldo Oct 25 '22 at 11:28
  • I don't think that's correct, or at least that not what the other answers say. You're right about my point #1, but regarding #2: If the Universe is infinite, then I should be allowed to choose × as a center, because I can keep adding more and more shells that are centered on this ×. I will never ever run out of shells, or reach a point where "× is asymmetrically located in the Universe"… – pela Oct 25 '22 at 11:42
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It appears there is a real problem here. See my practical way of checking the shell theory. I would appreciate any comment.
I took a circle of charged particles 1000 or more. I took particles that don’t interact with each other(they can if you like in the algorithm below) but are repelled by the boundary. If the starting positions and velocities are zero, the particles stay at the origin and never move- apart from a minute movement due to numerical issues. If I put the particles together at another position with zero starting velocity, the particles accelerate and oscillate(together) around the origin. If the particles are placed at different starting positions, each oscillate along its own radius. If the initial velocities are not zero, you get nice rotation curves. The algorithm is given below to run and check. It is simple integration of the equation of motion with kb,kw = coupling constants to particles and wall. The rest of the symbols are obvious- I think.
%program to calcul1ate the nbody problem in 2D and test the Shell theory.
clear all; close all;ee=1e-20;X=[];Y=[]; nb=4; nbv=1:nb;kb=1e-3;kw=6kb; a=1; dt=.05; nt=200; kb=0; '???'; figure(1);th=0:pi/1000:2pi; xw=acos(th); yw=asin(th);hold on;axis equal; hold on;plot(xw,yw); x=1*(rand(nb,1)-.5); y=1*(rand(nb,1)-.5); vx=2*(rand(nb,1)-.5);vy=2*(rand(nb,1)-.5); %x=x-mean(x);y=y-mean(y); vx=vx-mean(vx);vy=vy-mean(vy); %x=-0+x0;y=0+y0; vx=vx0;vy=vy0; '???';

for kk=1:nt; for jj=1:nb; xj=x(jj); yj=y(jj); vxj=vx(jj);vyj=vy(jj); xb=xj-x; yb=yj-y; rb=ee+sqrt(xb.^2+yb.^2); xbw=xj-xw; ybw=yj-yw; rbw=ee+sqrt(xbw.^2+ybw.^2); axb=kb.xb./rb.^3; ayb=kb.yb./rb.^3;
axbw=kw.xbw./rbw.^3;aybw=kw.ybw./rbw.^3; ax=sum(axb)+sum(axbw);ay=sum(ayb)+sum(aybw);
vxj=vxj+dt
ax; vyj=vyj+dt
ay; xj=xj+dt
vxj; yj=yj+dt
vyj;
x(jj)=xj; y(jj)=yj; vx(jj)=vxj; vy(jj)=vyj; end; 'jj'; pause(.01);if round(kk/10)*10==kk;hold off; figure(1);plot(xw,yw);axis equal;hold on;xlabel(['kk=' num2str(kk)]); end;plot(x,y,'.'); X=[ X x];Y=[Y y]; end; 'kk'; figure(1);plot(X',Y','.');title(['nbody= ' num2str(nb)]);grid on;xlabel('Plot of X,Y'); Question marks are statements to change to get various cases above.

Riad
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  • If the shell particles are removed and replaced with distance from wall, nothing changes apart from the oscillations in the case of zero initial velocity become sharp lines with no small spread due to numerical inaccuracy. It appears the acceleration in the question is true and requires and explanation. – Riad Jan 21 '24 at 11:04
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There are two problems with your assertions in the OP. First, a gravitational body only acts as a point source as far as test particles outside the body or shell are concerned. Inside a hollow shell, a test particle "feels" no gravity and is not drawn to any point. More precisely there is no gravitational gradient inside the hollow.

The second issue is that if the shells are not centred on the test particle or observer, then if the shells are large enough part of the shells is outside the visible universe of the observer and the parts outside the visible part can play no part in the gravitational calculations and the spherical shells are effectively no longer spherical gravitationally speaking. They effectively have part of the shell cut off because the gravitational influence from the "missing" part travels at the speed of light and has not yet reached the observer/test particle by definition.

KDP
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