Variations on this question have been asked a few times (e.g. here, here, and a few YouTube videos here and here). The claim seems to be that because we can only measure the round-trip speed of light, this leaves open the door for the one-way speed of light to an-isotropic. In the extreme case, advocates seem to even suggest that the speed of light can be infinite in one direction so long as it travels at only half the speed of light in the other.
I've read parts of Anderson et al. (here), and what I think I understand is that this is essentially a gauge choice for the synchronization of clocks in an inertial reference frame. Since the physics of special (and maybe general) relativity only care about spacetime lengths, the absolute value of a time at any given location in an inertial reference frame is unimportant. Per Anderson et al.:
An illustration from electrostatics may help; it is more closely related to our topic than may at first appear (Section 2.3.3). Voltmeters are useful, despite the dependence of the value of the voltage at any point on an arbitrary electromagnetic gauge choice. The conventional content of the voltage concept is well understood and is evidenced by the manufacturers’ provision of a second (earth) probe on each voltmeter. We would not counsel the removal of “Danger High Voltage” signs, even though the implied convention allows the re-classification of an electrical feeder wire as being at low voltage. On the other hand, if a company were to advertise a product with just one external probe which purported to “test for the absolute zero of voltage in seawater”, the matter becomes more serious than one of taste and judgement. This kind of claim is corrected in the following. Our fundamental aim is to clarify, if by analysis of such counterexamples, those testable facts which are independent of convention (see for example the discussion in Section 1.3.2).
So... I think that for special relativity, the specifics of how one synchronizes clocks across an inertial reference frame don't actually have any bearing on the predictions of the theory.
This seems to be a result of conceptualizing synchronization by having a "master" clock at the origin and sending out some signalling to "remote" clocks in the reference frame. We essentially can't necessarily all agree on when t = 0 (or rather, agreeing on when when t = 0 is not important for predictions of the theory). Since round trip times are limited by the speed of light, there is no way to confirm that a signal actually took a given amount of time to get from one point to another. You need to have an event that literally happened everywhere all at once that all observers can agree on. But the finite speed of light prevents that.
However, we do have another potential candidate: the Big Bang. If our current view of cosmology is right, the Big Bang did happen everywhere all at once. That is, I think that all observers in an inertial reference frame will agree on how long ago the Big Bang occurred. Can this be used to synchronize clocks across a frame?
The thought experiment is something like this: imagine we sent a light signal to another galaxy a billion light years away, and the content of the signal was something like, "We sent this signal 13.8 billion years after the beginning of the universe. When did you receive it?" If the speed of light is isotropic, I would expect our distant aliens to receive the light signal when they would measure the Big Bang to have been 14.8 billion years in the past. They would send a signal back telling us they observed the universe to be 14.8 billion years old, and we would receive the message when the universe was 15.8 billion years old. If the speed of light is not isotropic, then there would be a discrepancy as to the age our distant alien friends would assess the universe when they receive the message (although we would always assess the universe to be 15.8 billion years old when we receive the reply).
In the extreme example of the speed of light being infinite in one of the directions, our alien partners would receive the message when they assess the universe to be only 13.8 billion years old. I guess if some really weird gauges are correct, it might be the case our alien partners assess the age of the universe to be younger than 13.8 billion years when they receive the message (that would certainly have some weird implications, but I think that the gauge invariance technically allows for this possibility).
I realize there are many practical and technical problems with this thought experiment (not the least of which identifying some alien partners in a galaxy a billion light years away who could help us out). The question is more of, in principle, does this scheme work? Or would any an-isotropy in the speed of light cause distant observers to assess a different age for the universe?
UPDATE FOR CLARIFICATION
Based on some of the comments, I wanted to try to clarify my question. I think it is in two parts. Part 1 is if all inertial observers agree on the age of the universe? This question was inspired by Lewis et al. (https://arxiv.org/pdf/2012.12037.pdf) who seem to conclude that an-isotropy in the one-way speed of light may not be evident in observational astronomy; specifically that:
The conclusion is that the presence of an anisotropic speed of light leads to anisotropic time dilation effects, and hence observers in the Milne universe would be presented with an isotropic view of the distant cosmos.
Essentially, even though the sky presents as isotropic, this cannot be used as evidence that the one-way speed of light is isotropic because the very an-isotropy in the one-way speed of light would give rise to anisotropic time dilation effects and make the universe appear isotropic. The question is essentially, has any conducted a similar analysis on any effects that an-isotropic one-way speed of light would have on estimate of the age of the universe for observers located in physically different locations in the universe.
The second part of the question in contingent on the first part of the question. If, in fact, all inertial observers do agree on the age of the universe, can that be used to measure the one-way speed of light in principle? That is, can the beginning of the universe be used as a standard clock to establish some notion of an absolute time (i.e. time after beginning of the universe) that would get around the issues of synchronizing clocks (e.g. synchronization by light signal or the problem of slowly transported clocks discussed by Anderson et al.). There is, perhaps, some philosophical issue I'm missing that truly makes the one-way speed of light an undefined quantity that even in the presences of a definable standard clock makes the one-way speed of light undefined. So that's the nature of the second part of the question.